(a) Classification or reclassification of a Bank. Before finalizing any decision to classify a Bank under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart or reclassify the Bank under § 1229.4(a) of this subpart, the Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the proposed action that states the reasons for the proposed action and describes the information on which the proposed action is based. The notice required under this paragraph may be combined with the notice of a proposed supervisory action required under paragraph (b) of this section. The Director also may combine a notice informing the Bank of its capital classification and simultaneously informing the Bank that the Director intends to reclassify a Bank to a lower capital classification category., (b) Notice of a supervisory action. Before finalizing any action or actions authorized under § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 of this subpart, the Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the proposed action that states the reasons for the proposed action and describes the information on which the proposed action is based. The notice required under this paragraph may be combined with the notice of a proposed action to classify or reclassify the Bank required under paragraph (a) of this section., (c) Bank response. During the 30 calendar day period beginning on the date that the Bank is provided notice under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section of a proposed action or actions, a Bank may submit to the Director any information that the Bank considers relevant or appropriate for the Director to consider in determining whether to finalize the proposed action. The Director may, in his or her sole discretion, convene an informal hearing with representatives of the Bank to receive or discuss any such information. The Director, in his or her sole discretion, also may extend the period in which the Bank may respond to a notice for an additional 30 calendar days for good cause, or shorten such comment period if the Director determines the condition of the Bank requires faster action or a shorter comment period or if the Bank consents to a shorter comment period. The Director shall inform the Bank in writing, which may be provided as part of the notice required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, of any decision to extend or shorten the comment period. The failure of a Bank to provide information during the allotted comment period will waive any right of the Bank to comment on the proposed action., (d) Final action. At the earlier of the completion of the comment period established under paragraph (c) or the receipt of information provided by the Bank during such period, the Director shall determine whether to take the proposed action or actions that were the subject of the notice under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, after taking into consideration any information provided by the Bank. Such notice shall respond to any information submitted by the Bank. Any final order that the Bank take action, refrain from action or comply with any other requirement that was the subject of a notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall take effect upon the Bank's receipt of the notice required under this paragraph, unless a different effective date is set forth in this notice, and shall remain in effect and binding on the Bank until terminated in writing by the Director or until any terms and conditions for termination, as set forth in the notice, have been met., (e) Final actions under this section. Any final decision that the Bank take action, refrain from action or comply with any other requirement that was the subject of a notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall constitute an order under the Safety and Soundness Act. The Director in his or her discretion may apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or to the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank in question is established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) for the enforcement of such order, as allowed under § 1375 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4635) . In addition, a Bank or any executive officer or director of a Bank can be subject to enforcement action, including the imposition of civil monetary penalties, under § 1371, § 1372 or § 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, or 4636) for failure to comply with such an order., (f) Judicial review. A Bank that is not classified as critically undercapitalized may obtain judicial review of any final capital classification decision or of any final decision to take supervisory action made by the Director under § 1229.2, § 1229.4, § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 in accordance with the requirements and procedures set forth in § 1369D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4623).


(a) General. Hearings under this part shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of part 1209 of this chapter, governing actions in accordance with subchapter II of chapter 5, U.S.C. (commonly known as the Administrative Procedure Act)., (b) Factors to consider in determining amount of penalties and assessments. In determining an appropriate amount of any civil penalty and, if appropriate, any assessment, the presiding officer and, upon appeal, the Director or designee thereof, shall consider and state in his or her opinion any mitigating or aggravating circumstances. The amount of penalties and assessments imposed shall be based on the presiding officer's and the Director's or designee's consideration of evidence in support of one or more of the following factors:, (1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements;, (2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made;, (3) The degree of the respondent's culpability with respect to the misconduct;, (4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed;, (5) The value of the actual loss to FHFA as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the cost of investigation;, (6) The relationship of the civil penalties to the amount of the loss to FHFA;, (7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon public health or safety or public confidence in the management of FHFA programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs;, (8) Whether the respondent has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct;, (9) Whether the respondent attempted to conceal the misconduct;, (10) The degree to which the respondent has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it;, (11) If the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the respondent, the extent to which the respondent's practices fostered or attempted to preclude the misconduct;, (12) Whether the respondent cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct;, (13) Whether the respondent assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers;, (14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the respondent's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the respondent's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions;, (15) Whether the respondent has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly;, (16) The need to deter the respondent and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct;, (17) The respondent's ability to pay; and, (18) Any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the seriousness of the false claim or statement., (c) Stays ordered by the Department of Justice. If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General notifies the Director in writing that continuation of FHFA's action may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to the claim or statement at issue, the presiding officer or the Director shall stay the FHFA action immediately. The FHFA action may be resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General.


(a) You may seek reconsideration or review of our initial determination by sending a written request to the individual who issued you the initial decision. , (b) You must provide new information or explain a change in circumstances for our reconsideration of an initial decision. The individual who issued you the initial decision may either make a new determination or refer your request to a higher authority for review. , (c) You must provide an explanation of how you perceive that we misapplied this part that sets forth the legal or factual errors for our review of an initial decision.


Amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to the Government shall be promptly refunded. Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.


(a) Insurance disclosures. In connection with the initial purchase of an insurance product or annuity by a consumer from you, you must disclose to the consumer, except to the extent the disclosure would not be accurate, that: , (1) The insurance product or annuity is not a deposit or other obligation of, or guaranteed by, the bank or an affiliate of the bank; , (2) The insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) or any other agency of the United States, the bank, or (if applicable) an affiliate of the bank; and, (3) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves an investment risk, there is investment risk associated with the product, including the possible loss of value. , (b) Credit disclosure. In the case of an application for credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold, you must disclose that the bank may not condition an extension of credit on either: , (1) The consumer's purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank or any of its affiliates; or, (2) The consumer's agreement not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity. , (c) Timing and method of disclosures - (1) In general. The disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be provided orally and in writing before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer. The disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section must be made orally and in writing at the time the consumer applies for an extension of credit in connection with which insurance is solicited, offered, or sold. , (2) Exceptions for transactions by mail. If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section. If you take an application for credit by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section. , (3) Exception for transactions by telephone. If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by telephone, you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section by mail within 3 business days beginning on the first business day after the sale, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C 6103(a). If you take an application for such credit by telephone, you may provide the written disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section by mail, provided you mail it to the consumer within three days beginning the first business day after the application is taken, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). , (4) Electronic form of disclosures. (i) Subject to the requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (12 U.S.C. 7001(c)), you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section through electronic media instead of on paper, if the consumer affirmatively consents to receiving the disclosures electronically and if the disclosures are provided in a format that the consumer may retain or obtain later, for example, by printing or storing electronically (such as by downloading). , (ii) Any disclosures required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section that are provided by electronic media are not required to be provided orally. , (5) Disclosures must be readily understandable. The disclosures provided shall be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided. For instance, you may use the following disclosures, in visual media, such as television broadcasting, ATM screens, billboards, signs, posters and written advertisements and promotional materials, as appropriate and consistent with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:, (6) Disclosures must be meaningful. (i) You must provide the disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in a meaningful form. Examples of the types of methods that could call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided include: , (A) A plain-language heading to call attention to the disclosures; , (B) A typeface and type size that are easy to read; , (C) Wide margins and ample line spacing; , (D) Boldface or italics for key words; and, (E) Distinctive type size, style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when the disclosures are combined with other information. , (ii) You have not provided the disclosures in a meaningful form if you merely state to the consumer that the required disclosures are available in printed material, but you do not provide the printed material when required and do not orally disclose the information to the consumer when required. , (iii) With respect to those disclosures made through electronic media for which paper or oral disclosures are not required, the disclosures are not meaningfully provided if the consumer may bypass the visual text of the disclosures before purchasing an insurance product or annuity. , (7) Consumer acknowledgment. You must obtain from the consumer, at the time a consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, or at the time of the initial purchase by the consumer of an insurance product or annuity, a written acknowledgment by the consumer that the consumer received the disclosures. You may permit a consumer to acknowledge receipt of the disclosures electronically or in paper form. If the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section are provided in connection with a transaction that is conducted by telephone, you must: , (i) Obtain an oral acknowledgment of receipt of the disclosures and maintain sufficient documentation to show that the acknowledgment was given; and , (ii) Make reasonable efforts to obtain a written acknowledgment from the consumer. , (d) Advertisements and other promotional material for insurance products or annuities. The disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section are required in advertisements and promotional material for insurance products or annuities unless the advertisements and promotional materials are of a general nature describing or listing the services or products offered by the bank.


3 The primary, secondary, and seasonal credit rates described in this section apply to both advances and discounts made under the primary, secondary, and seasonal credit programs, respectively., (a) Primary credit. The interest rate at each Federal Reserve Bank for primary credit provided to depository institutions under § 201.4(a) is 0.25 percent., (b) Secondary credit. The interest rate at each Federal Reserve Bank for secondary credit provided to depository institutions under § 201.4(b) is 0.75 percent., (c) Seasonal credit. The rate for seasonal credit extended to depository institutions under § 201.4(c) is a flexible rate that takes into account rates on market sources of funds., (d) Primary credit rate in a financial emergency. (1) The primary credit rate at a Federal Reserve Bank is the target federal funds rate of the Federal Open Market Committee or, if the Federal Open Market Committee has set a target range for the federal funds rate, the rate corresponding to the top of the target range, if: , (i) In a financial emergency the Reserve Bank has established the primary credit rate at that rate; and , (ii) The Chairman of the Board of Governors (or, in the Chairman's absence, his authorized designee) certifies that a quorum of the Board is not available to act on the Reserve Bank's rate establishment. , (2) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a financial emergency is a significant disruption to the U.S. money markets resulting from an act of war, military or terrorist attack, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event. , (e) Term auction facility. The interest rate on advances to depository institutions made pursuant to an auction under § 201.4(e) is the rate at which all bids at that auction may be fulfilled, up to the maximum auction amount and subject to any minimum bid rate and other conditions as set by the Board.


No bank for cooperatives may make a loan if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceeds the following percentages of the lending and leasing limit base of the bank: , (a) Basic limit. (1) Term loans to eligible cooperatives: 25 percent. , (2) Term loans to foreign and domestic parties: 10 percent. , (3) Lease loans qualifying under § 614.4020(a)(3) and applying to the lessee: 25 percent. , (4) Standby letters of credit qualifying under § 614.4810: 35 percent. , (5) Guarantees qualifying under § 614.4800: 35 percent. , (6) Seasonal loans exclusive of commodity loans qualifying under § 614.4231: 35 percent. , (7) Foreign trade receivables qualifying under § 614.4700: 50 percent. , (8) Commodity loans qualifying under § 614.4231: 50 percent., (9) Export and import letters of credit qualifying under § 614.4720: 50 percent. , (b) Total limit. (1) The sum of term and seasonal loans exclusive of commodity loans qualifying under § 614.4231: 35 percent. , (2) The sum of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(9) of this section: 50 percent.


(a) What internal controls and records are necessary? - (1) General. A financial holding company, including a private equity fund controlled by a financial holding company, that makes investments under this subpart must establish and maintain policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to conduct, monitor and manage such investment activities and the risks associated with such investment activities in a safe and sound manner, including policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to: , (i) Monitor and assess the carrying value, market value and performance of each investment and the aggregate portfolio; , (ii) Identify and manage the market, credit, concentration and other risks associated with such investments;, (iii) Identify, monitor and assess the terms, amounts and risks arising from transactions and relationships (including contingent fees or contingent interests) with each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this subpart; , (iv) Ensure the maintenance of corporate separateness between the financial holding company and each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this subpart and protect the financial holding company and its depository institution subsidiaries from legal liability for the operations conducted and financial obligations of each such company; and , (v) Ensure compliance with this part and any other provisions of law governing transactions and relationships with companies in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this subpart (e.g., fiduciary principles or sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1), if applicable). , (2) Availability of records. A financial holding company must make the policies, procedures and records required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section available to the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank upon request. , (b) What periodic reports must be filed? A financial holding company must provide reports to the appropriate Reserve Bank in such format and at such times as the Board may prescribe. , (c) Is notice required for the acquisition of companies? - (1) Fulfillment of statutory notice requirement. Except as required in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, no post-acquisition notice under section 4(k)(6) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(6)) is required by a financial holding company in connection with an investment made under this subpart if the financial holding company has previously filed a notice under § 225.87 indicating that it had commenced merchant banking investment activities under this subpart. , (2) Notice of large individual investments. A financial holding company must provide written notice to the Board on the appropriate form within 30 days after acquiring more than 5 percent of the voting shares, assets or ownership interests of any company under this subpart, including an interest in a private equity fund, at a total cost to the financial holding company that exceeds the lesser of 5 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the financial holding company or $200 million. , (3) Qualifying community banking organizations. For purposes of this paragraph (c), a financial holding company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) calculates its Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter) in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter.


(a) A corporate credit union may charge its members a membership fee. The fee may be one-time or periodic., (b) The corporate credit union must calculate the fee uniformly for all members as a percentage of each member's assets, except that the corporate credit union may reduce the amount of the fee for members that have contributed capital to the corporate credit union. Any reduction must be proportional to the amount of the member's nondepleted contributed capital., (c) The corporate credit union must give its members at least six months advance notice of any initial or new fee, including terms and conditions, before invoicing the fee. For a recurring fee, the corporate credit union must also give six months notice of any material change to the terms and conditions of the fee., (d) The corporate credit union may terminate the membership of any credit union that fails to pay the fee in full within 60 days of the invoice date.


(a) General. At its first organizational meeting, the board of directors of a subsidiary holding company shall adopt a set of bylaws for the administration and regulation of its affairs. Bylaws may be adopted, amended or repealed by either a majority of the votes cast by the shareholders at a legal meeting or a majority of the board of directors. The bylaws shall contain sufficient provisions to govern the subsidiary holding company in accordance with the requirements of §§ 239.26, 239.27, 239.28, and 239.29 and shall not contain any provision that is inconsistent with those sections or with applicable laws, rules, regulations or the subsidiary holding company's charter, except that a bylaw provision inconsistent with §§ 239.26, 239.27, 239.28, and 239.29 may be adopted with the approval of the Board., (b) Form of filing - (1) Application requirement. (i) Any bylaw amendment shall be submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank for approval if it would:, (A) Render more difficult or discourage a merger, tender offer, or proxy contest, the assumption of control by a holder of a large block of the subsidiary holding company's stock, or the removal of incumbent management; or, (B) Be inconsistent with §§ 239.26, 239.27, 239.28, and 239.29, with applicable laws, rules, regulations or the subsidiary holding company's charter or involve a significant issue of law or policy, including indemnification, conflicts of interest, and limitations on director or officer liability., (ii) Applications submitted under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are subject to the processing procedures under § 238.14 of this chapter;, (iii) For purposes of this paragraph (b), bylaw provisions that adopt the language of the model bylaws contained in appendix D to this part, if adopted without change and filed with Board within 30 days after adoption, are effective upon adoption. The Board may amend the model bylaws provided in appendix D., (2) Filing requirement. If the proposed bylaw amendment does not implicate paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3) of this section and is permissible under all applicable laws, rules, or regulations, the subsidiary holding company shall submit the amendment to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the date the bylaw amendment is to be adopted by the subsidiary holding company., (3) Corporate governance procedures. A subsidiary holding company may elect to follow the corporate governance procedures of: The laws of the state where the main office of the subsidiary holding company is located; Delaware General Corporation law; or The Model Business Corporation Act, provided that such procedures may be elected to the extent not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes and regulations and safety and soundness, and such procedures are not of the type described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. If this election is selected, a subsidiary holding company shall designate in its bylaws the provision or provisions from the body or bodies of law selected for its corporate governance procedures, and shall file a copy of such bylaws, which are effective upon adoption, within 30 days after adoption. The submission shall indicate, where not obvious, why the bylaw provisions do not require an application under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section., (c) Effectiveness. Any bylaw amendment filed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall automatically be effective 30 days from the date of filing of such amendment, provided that the subsidiary holding company follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting such amendment, unless the Board notifies the subsidiary holding company prior to the expiration of such 30-day period that such amendment is rejected or requires an application to be filed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section., (d) Effect of subsequent charter or bylaw change. Notwithstanding any subsequent change to its charter or bylaws, the authority of a subsidiary holding company to engage in any transaction shall be determined only by the subsidiary holding company's charter or bylaws then in effect, unless otherwise provided by Federal law or regulation.


(a) Process and systems requirements. (1) An Enterprise must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital., (2) The systems and processes used by an Enterprise for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart must be consistent with the Enterprise's internal risk management processes and management information reporting systems., (3) Each Enterprise must have an appropriate infrastructure with risk measurement and management processes that meet the requirements of this section and are appropriate given the Enterprise's size and level of complexity. The Enterprise must ensure that the risk parameters and reference data used to determine its risk-based capital requirements are representative of long run experience with respect to its credit risk and operational risk exposures., (b) Risk rating and segmentation systems for exposures. (1) An Enterprise must have an internal risk rating and segmentation system that accurately, reliably, and meaningfully differentiates among degrees of credit risk for the Enterprise's exposures. When assigning an internal risk rating, an Enterprise may consider a third-party assessment of credit risk, provided that the Enterprise's internal risk rating assignment does not rely solely on the external assessment., (2) If an Enterprise uses multiple rating or segmentation systems, the Enterprise's rationale for assigning an exposure to a particular system must be documented and applied in a manner that best reflects the obligor or exposure's level of risk. An Enterprise must not inappropriately allocate exposures across systems to minimize regulatory capital requirements., (3) In assigning ratings to exposures, an Enterprise must use all relevant and material information and ensure that the information is current., (c) Quantification of risk parameters for exposures. (1) The Enterprise must have a comprehensive risk parameter quantification process that produces accurate, timely, and reliable estimates of the risk parameters on a consistent basis for the Enterprise's exposures., (2) An Enterprise's estimates of risk parameters must incorporate all relevant, material, and available data that is reflective of the Enterprise's actual exposures and of sufficient quality to support the determination of risk-based capital requirements for the exposures. In particular, the population of exposures in the data used for estimation purposes, the underwriting standards in use when the data were generated, and other relevant characteristics, should closely match or be comparable to the Enterprise's exposures and standards. In addition, an Enterprise must:, (i) Demonstrate that its estimates are representative of long run experience, including periods of economic downturn conditions, whether internal or external data are used;, (ii) Take into account any changes in underwriting practice or the process for pursuing recoveries over the observation period;, (iii) Promptly reflect technical advances, new data, and other information as they become available;, (iv) Demonstrate that the data used to estimate risk parameters support the accuracy and robustness of those estimates; and, (v) Demonstrate that its estimation technique performs well in out-of-sample tests whenever possible., (3) The Enterprise's risk parameter quantification process must produce appropriately conservative risk parameter estimates where the Enterprise has limited relevant data, and any adjustments that are part of the quantification process must not result in a pattern of bias toward lower risk parameter estimates., (4) The Enterprise's risk parameter estimation process should not rely on the possibility of U.S. government financial assistance., (5) Default, loss severity, and exposure amount data must include periods of economic downturn conditions, or the Enterprise must adjust its estimates of risk parameters to compensate for the lack of data from periods of economic downturn conditions., (6) If an Enterprise uses internal data obtained prior to becoming subject to this subpart or external data to arrive at risk parameter estimates, the Enterprise must demonstrate to FHFA that the Enterprise has made appropriate adjustments if necessary to be consistent with the Enterprise's definition of default. Internal data obtained after the Enterprise becomes subject to this subpart must be consistent with the Enterprise's definition of default., (7) The Enterprise must review and update (as appropriate) its risk parameters and its risk parameter quantification process at least annually., (8) The Enterprise must, at least annually, conduct a comprehensive review and analysis of reference data to determine relevance of the reference data to the Enterprise's exposures, quality of reference data to support risk parameter estimates, and consistency of reference data to the Enterprise's definition of default., (d) Operational risk - (1) Operational risk management processes. An Enterprise must:, (i) Have an operational risk management function that:, (A) Is independent of business line management; and, (B) Is responsible for designing, implementing, and overseeing the Enterprise's operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and related processes;, (ii) Have and document a process (which must capture business environment and internal control factors affecting the Enterprise's operational risk profile) to identify, measure, monitor, and control operational risk in the Enterprise's products, activities, processes, and systems; and, (iii) Report operational risk exposures, operational loss events, and other relevant operational risk information to business unit management, senior management, and the board of directors (or a designated committee of the board)., (2) Operational risk data and assessment systems. An Enterprise must have operational risk data and assessment systems that capture operational risks to which the Enterprise is exposed. The Enterprise's operational risk data and assessment systems must:, (i) Be structured in a manner consistent with the Enterprise's current business activities, risk profile, technological processes, and risk management processes; and, (ii) Include credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable processes that incorporate the following elements on an ongoing basis:, (A) Internal operational loss event data. The Enterprise must have a systematic process for capturing and using internal operational loss event data in its operational risk data and assessment systems., (1) The Enterprise's operational risk data and assessment systems must include a historical observation period of at least five years for internal operational loss event data (or such shorter period approved by FHFA to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line)., (2) The Enterprise must be able to map its internal operational loss event data into the seven operational loss event type categories., (3) The Enterprise may refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts if the Enterprise can demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA that the thresholds are reasonable, do not exclude important internal operational loss event data, and permit the Enterprise to capture substantially all the dollar value of the Enterprise's operational losses., (B) External operational loss event data. The Enterprise must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating external operational loss event data into its operational risk data and assessment systems., (C) Scenario analysis. The Enterprise must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating scenario analysis into its operational risk data and assessment systems., (D) Business environment and internal control factors. The Enterprise must incorporate business environment and internal control factors into its operational risk data and assessment systems. The Enterprise must also periodically compare the results of its prior business environment and internal control factor assessments against its actual operational losses incurred in the intervening period., (3) Operational risk quantification systems. The Enterprise's operational risk quantification systems:, (i) Must generate estimates of the Enterprise's operational risk exposure using its operational risk data and assessment systems;, (ii) Must employ a unit of measure that is appropriate for the Enterprise's range of business activities and the variety of operational loss events to which it is exposed, and that does not combine business activities or operational loss events with demonstrably different risk profiles within the same loss distribution;, (iii) Must include a credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable approach for weighting each of the four elements, described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, that an Enterprise is required to incorporate into its operational risk data and assessment systems;, (iv) May use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure if the Enterprise can demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA that its process for estimating dependence is sound, robust to a variety of scenarios, and implemented with integrity, and allows for uncertainty surrounding the estimates. If the Enterprise has not made such a demonstration, it must sum operational risk exposure estimates across units of measure to calculate its total operational risk exposure; and, (v) Must be reviewed and updated (as appropriate) whenever the Enterprise becomes aware of information that may have a material effect on the Enterprise's estimate of operational risk exposure, but the review and update must occur no less frequently than annually., (e) Data management and maintenance. (1) An Enterprise must have data management and maintenance systems that adequately support all aspects of its advanced systems and the timely and accurate reporting of risk-based capital requirements., (2) An Enterprise must retain data using an electronic format that allows timely retrieval of data for analysis, validation, reporting, and disclosure purposes., (3) An Enterprise must retain sufficient data elements related to key risk drivers to permit adequate monitoring, validation, and refinement of its advanced systems., (f) Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms. (1) The Enterprise's senior management must ensure that all components of the Enterprise's advanced systems function effectively and comply with the minimum requirements in this section., (2) The Enterprise's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must at least annually review the effectiveness of, and approve, the Enterprise's advanced systems., (3) An Enterprise must have an effective system of controls and oversight that:, (i) Ensures ongoing compliance with the minimum requirements in this section;, (ii) Maintains the integrity, reliability, and accuracy of the Enterprise's advanced systems; and, (iii) Includes adequate governance and project management processes., (4) The Enterprise must validate, on an ongoing basis, its advanced systems. The Enterprise's validation process must be independent of the advanced systems' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:, (i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the advanced systems;, (ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking; and, (iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting., (5) The Enterprise must have an internal audit function or equivalent function that is independent of business-line management that at least annually:, (i) Reviews the Enterprise's advanced systems and associated operations, including the operations of its credit function and estimations of risk parameters;, (ii) Assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the Enterprise's advanced systems; and, (iii) Documents and reports its findings to the Enterprise's board of directors (or a committee thereof)., (6) The Enterprise must periodically stress test its advanced systems. The stress testing must include a consideration of how economic cycles, especially downturns, affect risk-based capital requirements (including migration across rating grades and segments and the credit risk mitigation benefits of double default treatment)., (g) Documentation. The Enterprise must adequately document all material aspects of its advanced systems.


(a) Purpose. This subpart F establishes risk-based capital requirements for FDIC-supervised institutions with significant exposure to market risk, provides methods for these FDIC-supervised institutions to calculate their standardized measure for market risk and, if applicable, advanced measure for market risk, and establishes public disclosure requirements., (b) Applicability. (1) This subpart F applies to any FDIC-supervised institution with aggregate trading assets and trading liabilities (as reported in the FDIC-supervised institution's most recent quarterly Call Report), equal to:, (i) 10 percent or more of quarter-end total assets as reported on the most recent quarterly Call Report; or, (ii) $1 billion or more., (2) The FDIC may apply this subpart to any FDIC-supervised institution if the FDIC deems it necessary or appropriate because of the level of market risk of the FDIC-supervised institution or to ensure safe and sound banking practices., (3) The FDIC may exclude an FDIC-supervised institution that meets the criteria of paragraph (b)(1) of this section from application of this subpart if the FDIC determines that the exclusion is appropriate based on the level of market risk of the FDIC-supervised institution and is consistent with safe and sound banking practices., (c) Reservation of authority (1) The FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under this subpart if the FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution's capital requirement for market risk as calculated under this subpart is not commensurate with the market risk of the FDIC-supervised institution's covered positions. In making determinations under paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section, the FDIC will apply notice and response procedures generally in the same manner as the notice and response procedures set forth in § 324.5(c)., (2) If the FDIC determines that the risk-based capital requirement calculated under this subpart by the FDIC-supervised institution for one or more covered positions or portfolios of covered positions is not commensurate with the risks associated with those positions or portfolios, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to the positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios., (3) The FDIC may also require an FDIC-supervised institution to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under this subpart, or under subpart D or subpart E of this part, as appropriate, to more accurately reflect the risks of the positions., (4) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of the FDIC under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law.


All papers to be filed with the Board shall be filed with the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.


Section 552a (i)(3) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3)) makes it a misdemeanor, subject to a maximum fine of $5,000, to knowingly and willfully request or obtain any record concerning any individual from an agency under false pretenses. Sections 552a (i) (1) and (2) of the Act (5 U.S.C. 552a (i) (1), (2)) provide penalties for violation by agency employees of the Act or regulations established thereunder.


The Board may prescribe regulations to exempt transactions or relationships from the requirements of section 23B and subpart F of this part if it finds such exemptions to be in the public interest and consistent with the purposes of section 23B.


By January 15 of each calendar year, the FCA shall provide each assessed System institution with a report of assessments and expenses for the preceding fiscal year showing total assessments and other income received as applied to expenses incurred by major budget category and amounts set aside for a necessary reserve.


(a) The Director makes FHFA's determinations regarding demands and requests., (b) The Director will notify the demanding or requesting party of FHFA's determination, the reasons for the approval or rejection of the demand or request, and any conditions that the Director may impose on the release of records, information, or testimony.


A mutual insurance holding company shall be treated as an insurance company for the purpose of section 203(e) of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5383(e); provided that - , (a) The company is subject to the insurance laws of the state of its domicile, including, specifically and without limitation, a statutory regime for the rehabilitation or liquidation of insurance companies that are in default or in danger of default;, (b) The company is not subject to bankruptcy proceedings under title 11 of the United States Code;, (c) The largest United States subsidiary of the company (as measured by total assets as of the end of the previous calendar quarter) is an insurance company or an intermediate insurance stock holding company; and, (d) The assets and investments of the company are limited to the securities of an intermediate insurance stock holding company, the securities of the converted mutual insurance company and other assets and securities of the type authorized for holding and investment by an insurance company domiciled in its state of incorporation.


(a) Prior to Facility approval of each application of a Regular member for a Facility advance or an Agent member for a Facility advance for such Agent member's own need (provided such Agent may submit an application under § 725.17(b)(2)(iv) of this part), the Facility shall consider the creditworthiness of such member., (b) Prior to an Agent's approval of each application of a member natural person credit union for an extension of credit on which an application by the Agent to the Facility will be based, an Agent shall consider the creditworthiness of such member natural person credit union., (c) Specific characteristics of an uncreditworthy credit union include, but are not limited to, insolvency as defined in paragraph (1) to the definition of “insolvency” in § 700.2 of this chapter, unsatisfactory practices in extending credit, lower than desirable reserve levels, high expense ratio, failure to repay previous Facility advances as agreed, excessive dependence on borrowed funds, inadequate cash management policies and planning, or any other relevant characteristics creating a less than satisfactory condition. The presence of one or more of these characteristics will not necessarily mean that a credit union will be considered uncreditworthy., (d) A credit union (whether a Regular member of the Facility, Agent member (provided such Agent may submit an application under § 725.17(b)(2)(iv) of this part), or a member natural person credit union) which does not meet the Facility's creditworthiness standards may be limited in or denied the use of advances for its liquidity needs.


(a) Authority. This subpart (Regulation KK) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936, as amended (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), and section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), as well as under the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 221 et seq.); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq.); the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.), and the Home Owners' Loan Act, as amended (1461 et seq.)., (b) Purpose. Section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require the Board to establish capital and margin requirements for any state member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2(g)), bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a (on or after the transfer established under Section 311 of the Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5411)), foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 211.21(o)), foreign bank that does not operate an insured branch, state branch or state agency of a foreign bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(b)(11) and (12)), or Edge or agreement corporation (as defined in 12 CFR 211.1(c)(2) and (3)) that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This subpart implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statutes' requirements., (c) Scope. This subpart establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this subpart with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This subpart applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the relevant compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this subpart is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this subpart., (d) Exemptions - (1) Swaps. The requirements of this subpart (except for § 237.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:, (i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;, (ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or, (iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations., (2) Security-based swaps. The requirements of this subpart (except for § 237.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:, (i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or, (ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations., (e) Compliance dates. Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this subpart on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:, (1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin and § 237.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 237.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty., (3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty., (f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this subpart with respect to that counterparty., (g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this subpart (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status., (2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this subpart (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status., (h) Legacy swaps. Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this subpart for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this subpart if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:, (1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;, (2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap was amended under the following conditions:, (i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;, (ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:, (A) A covered swap entity, or, (B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;, (iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);, (iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;, (v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and, (vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:, (A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or, (B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended., (3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:, (A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);, (B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or, (C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate., (ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement., (iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement., (4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:, (i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or, (ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise., (5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:, (i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or, (ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:, (A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or, (B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.


FDIC consent by order or notice. An insured state savings association that previously filed an application and obtained the FDIC's consent to engage in an activity or to acquire or retain an investment in a service corporation engaging as principal in an activity or acquiring and retaining any investment that is prohibited under this subpart may continue that activity or retain that investment without seeking the FDIC's consent, provided the insured state savings association and the service corporation, if applicable, continue to meet the conditions and restrictions of approval. An insured state savings association which was granted approval based on conditions which differ from the requirements of §§ 362.4(c)(2) and 362.12 (c) and (d) will be considered to meet the conditions and restrictions of the approval if the insured state savings association and any applicable service corporation meet the requirements of §§ 362.4(c)(2) and 362.12 (c) and (d). For the purposes of applying § 362.4(c)(2), references to the terms “eligible subsidiary” and “subsidiary” in § 362.4(c)(2) shall be deemed to refer, respectively, to the eligible service corporation and the service corporation.


(a) Post-transaction notice generally required to engage in a financial activity. A financial holding company that commences an activity or acquires shares of a company engaged in an activity listed in § 225.86 must notify the appropriate Reserve Bank in writing within 30 calendar days after commencing the activity or consummating the acquisition by using the appropriate form. , (b) Cases in which notice to the Board is not required - (1) Acquisitions that do not involve control of a company. A notice under paragraph (a) of this section is not required in connection with the acquisition of shares of a company if, following the acquisition, the financial holding company does not control the company. , (2) No additional notice required to engage <E T="01">de novo in an activity for which a financial holding company already has provided notice. After a financial holding company provides the appropriate Reserve Bank with notice that the company is engaged in an activity listed in § 225.86, a financial holding company may, unless otherwise notified by the Board, commence the activity de novo through any subsidiary that the financial holding company is authorized to control without providing additional notice under paragraph (a) of this section. , (3) Conduct of certain investment activities. Unless required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a financial holding company is not required to provide notice under paragraph (a) of this section of any individual acquisition of shares of a company as part of the conduct by a financial holding company of securities underwriting, dealing, or market making activities as described in section 4(k)(4)(E) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(E)), merchant banking activities conducted pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)), or insurance company investment activities conducted pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)), if the financial holding company previously has notified the Board under paragraph (a) of this section that the company has commenced the relevant securities, merchant banking, or insurance company investment activities, as relevant. , (4) Notice of large merchant banking or insurance company investments. Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3) of this section, a financial holding company must provide notice under paragraph (a) of the section if: , (i) As part of a merchant banking activity conducted under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)), the financial holding company acquires more than 5 percent of the shares, assets, or ownership interests of any company at a total cost that exceeds the lesser of 5 percent of the financial holding company's Tier 1 capital or $200 million; , (ii) As part of an insurance company investment activity conducted under section 4(k)(4)(I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)), the financial holding company acquires more than 5 percent of the shares, assets, or ownership interests of any company at a total cost that exceeds the lesser of 5 percent of the financial holding company's Tier 1 capital or $200 million; or , (iii) The Board in the exercise of its supervisory authority notifies the financial holding company that a notice is necessary. , (iv) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), a financial holding company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) calculates its Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter) in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter.


(a) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, the amount of an eligible insured depository institution's one-time credit shall be applied to the maximum extent allowable by law against that institution's quarterly assessment payment under subpart A of this part, after applying assessment credits awarded under § 327.11(c), until the institution's credit is exhausted., (b) The following limitations shall apply to the application of the credit against assessment payments., (1) For assessments that become due for assessment periods beginning in calendar years 2008, 2009, and 2010, the credit may not be applied to more than 90 percent of the quarterly assessment., (2) For an insured depository institution that exhibits financial, operational, or compliance weaknesses ranging from moderately severe to unsatisfactory, or is not at least adequately capitalized (as defined pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) at the beginning of an assessment period, the amount of the credit that may be applied against the institution's quarterly assessment for that period shall not exceed the amount that the institution would have been assessed if it had been assessed at the average assessment rate for all insured institutions for that period. The FDIC shall determine the average assessment rate for an assessment period based upon its best estimate of the average rate for the period. The estimate shall be made using the best information available, but shall be made no earlier than 30 days and no later than 20 days prior to the payment due date for the period., (3) If the FDIC has established a restoration plan pursuant to section 7(b)(3)(E) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the FDIC may elect to restrict the application of credit amounts, in any assessment period, up to the lesser of:, (i) The amount of an insured depository institution's assessment for that period; or, (ii) The amount equal to 3 basis points of the institution's assessment base., (c) Remittance of credits. Subject to the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, in the same assessment period that the FDIC remits the full nominal value of small bank assessment credits pursuant to § 327.11(c)(13), the FDIC shall remit the full nominal value of an institution's remaining one-time assessment credits provided under this subpart B in a single lump-sum payment to such institution.


Any one-time charge paid by a borrower to a qualified lender in consideration for making a loan must be included in the effective interest rate as a loan origination charge. These include, but are not limited to, loan origination fees, application fees, and conversion fees. Loan origination charges also include any payments made by a borrower to a qualified lender to reduce the interest rate that would otherwise be charged, including any charges designated as “points.”


(a) General rule. To be eligible for an award under this subpart, an applicant must have been named as a party to the adjudicatory proceeding and show that it meets all other conditions of eligibility set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section., (b) Types of eligible applicant. An applicant is eligible for an award only if it meets at least one of the following descriptions:, (1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; , (2) Any sole owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, associations, unit of local government or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 and which did not have more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; , (3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary proceeding was initiated; or, (4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary proceeding was initiated. , (c) Factors to be considered. In determining the eligibility of an applicant: , (1) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business shall be considered as an individual rather than a sole owner of an unincorporated business if the issues on which he or she prevailed are related to personal interests rather than to business interests. , (2) An applicant's net worth includes the value of any assets disposed of for the purpose of meeting an eligibility standard and excludes the value of any obligations incurred for this purpose. Transfers of assets or obligations incurred for less than reasonably equivalent value will be presumed to have been made for this purpose. , (3) The net worth of a financial institution shall be established by the net worth information reported in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines on the financial institution's financial report to its supervisory agency for the last reporting date before the initiation of the adversary proceeding. A bank holding company's and a savings and loan holding company's net worth will be considered on a consolidated basis even if the bank holding company or the savings and loan holding company is not required to file its regulatory reports to the Board on a consolidated basis. , (4) The employees of an applicant include all those persons who were regularly providing services for remuneration for the applicant, under its direction and control, on the date the adversary proceeding was initiated. Part-time employees are counted on a proportional basis. , (5) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. As used in this subpart, affiliates are: Individuals, corporations, and entities that directly or indirectly or acting through one or more entities control at least 25% of the voting shares of the applicant, and corporations and entities of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls at least 25% of the voting shares. The Board may determine, in light of the actual relationship among the affiliated entities, that aggregation with regard to one or more of the applicant's affiliates would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of this subpart and decline to aggregate the net worth and employees of such affiliate; alternatively, the Board may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.


(a) Long-term real estate lending. Federal land credit associations are authorized, subject to the requirments of § 614.4200, to make real estate mortgage loans with maturities of not less than 5 years nor more than 40 years and continuing commitments to make such loans., (b) Loan participations. Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, Federal land credit associations may enter into participation agreements with:, (1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under title I of the Act; , (2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and, (3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055., (c) Other interests in loans. (1) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part and the supervision of their respective funding banks, Federal land credit associations may sell interests in loans made under paragraph (a) of this section only to:, (i) Farm Credit System institutions, as authorized by their respective funding banks;, (ii) Other lenders that are not Farm Credit System institutions, as authorized by their respective funding banks; and, (iii) Any certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, as defined by section 8.0(3) of the Act, for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act., (2) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, Federal land credit associations may purchase interests in loans that comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and nonvoting stock from Farm Credit System institutions., (3) Federal land credit associations, in their capacity as certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act, may purchase interests in loans (other than participation interests under paragraph (b) of this section) from institutions other than Farm Credit System institutions for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.


This subpart implements section 10(f) of HOLA which requires savings associations with holding companies to provide the Board not less than 30 days' notice of a proposed declaration of a dividend. This subpart applies to all declarations of dividends by a subsidiary savings association of a savings and loan holding company.


(a) General rules - (1) Requests for information. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor may request any information in connection with a credit transaction. 1<FTREF/>, 1 This paragraph does not limit or abrogate any Federal or State law regarding privacy, privileged information, credit reporting limitations, or similar restrictions on obtainable information., (2) Required collection of information. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor shall request information for monitoring purposes as required by § 202.13 for credit secured by the applicant's dwelling. In addition, a creditor may obtain information required by a regulation, order, or agreement issued by, or entered into with, a court or an enforcement agency (including the Attorney General of the United States or a similar state official) to monitor or enforce compliance with the Act, this regulation, or other federal or state statutes or regulations. , (3) Special-purpose credit. A creditor may obtain information that is otherwise restricted to determine eligibility for a special purpose credit program, as provided in § 202.8(b), (c), and (d). , (b) Limitation on information about race, color, religion, national origin, or sex. A creditor shall not inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section. , (1) Self-test. A creditor may inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction for the purpose of conducting a self-test that meets the requirements of § 202.15. A creditor that makes such an inquiry shall disclose orally or in writing, at the time the information is requested, that: , (i) The applicant will not be required to provide the information; , (ii) The creditor is requesting the information to monitor its compliance with the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act; , (iii) Federal law prohibits the creditor from discriminating on the basis of this information, or on the basis of an applicant's decision not to furnish the information; and , (iv) If applicable, certain information will be collected based on visual observation or surname if not provided by the applicant or other person. , (2) Sex. An applicant may be requested to designate a title on an application form (such as Ms., Miss, Mr., or Mrs.) if the form discloses that the designation of a title is optional. An application form shall otherwise use only terms that are neutral as to sex. , (c) Information about a spouse or former spouse - (1) General rule. Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor may not request any information concerning the spouse or former spouse of an applicant. , (2) Permissible inquiries. A creditor may request any information concerning an applicant's spouse (or former spouse under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section) that may be requested about the applicant if: , (i) The spouse will be permitted to use the account; , (ii) The spouse will be contractually liable on the account; , (iii) The applicant is relying on the spouse's income as a basis for repayment of the credit requested; , (iv) The applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested; or , (v) The applicant is relying on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments from a spouse or former spouse as a basis for repayment of the credit requested. , (3) Other accounts of the applicant. A creditor may request that an applicant list any account on which the applicant is contractually liable and to provide the name and address of the person in whose name the account is held. A creditor may also ask an applicant to list the names in which the applicant has previously received credit. , (d) Other limitations on information requests - (1) Marital status. If an applicant applies for individual unsecured credit, a creditor shall not inquire about the applicant's marital status unless the applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested. If an application is for other than individual unsecured credit, a creditor may inquire about the applicant's marital status, but shall use only the terms married, unmarried, and separated. A creditor may explain that the category unmarried includes single, divorced, and widowed persons. , (2) Disclosure about income from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance. A creditor shall not inquire whether income stated in an application is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments unless the creditor discloses to the applicant that such income need not be revealed if the applicant does not want the creditor to consider it in determining the applicant's creditworthiness. , (3) Childbearing, childrearing. A creditor shall not inquire about birth control practices, intentions concerning the bearing or rearing of children, or capability to bear children. A creditor may inquire about the number and ages of an applicant's dependents or about dependent-related financial obligations or expenditures, provided such information is requested without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. , (e) Permanent residency and immigration status. A creditor may inquire about the permanent residency and immigration status of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction.


(a) Any banking entity that engages in an activity or makes an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or acts in a manner that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, including through an abuse of any activity or investment permitted under subparts B or C, or otherwise violates the restrictions and requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, shall, upon discovery, promptly terminate the activity and, as relevant, dispose of the investment., (b) Whenever the FDIC finds reasonable cause to believe any banking entity has engaged in an activity or made an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or engaged in any activity or made any investment that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, the FDIC may take any action permitted by law to enforce compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, including directing the banking entity to restrict, limit, or terminate any or all activities under this part and dispose of any investment.


(a) The Board has determined to delegate authority to exercise the functions described in this part. , (b) The Chairman of the Board shall assign responsibility for performing such delegated functions.


(a) Board review of a voluntary supervisory conversion application. The Board will generally approve the application to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion unless it determines:, (1) The mutual holding company does not meet the eligibility requirements for a voluntary supervisory conversion under §§ 239.65(d) or because the proceeds from the sale of the conversion stock, less the expenses of the conversion, would be insufficient to satisfy any applicable viability requirement;, (2) The transaction is detrimental to or would cause potential injury to the mutual holding company, its subsidiary savings association, or the Deposit Insurance Fund or is contrary to the public interest;, (3) The mutual holding company or the acquiror, or the controlling parties or directors and officers of the mutual holding company or the acquiror, have engaged in unsafe or unsound practices in connection with the voluntary supervisory conversion; or, (4) The mutual holding company fails to justify an employment contract incidental to the conversion, or the employment contract will be an unsafe or unsound practice or represent a sale of control. In a voluntary supervisory conversion, the Board generally will not approve employment contracts of more than one year for the existing management., (b) Conditions the Board may impose on an approval. (1) The Board will condition approval of a voluntary supervisory conversion application on all of the following., (i) The conversion stock sale must be complete within three months after the Board approves the application. The Board may grant an extension for good cause., (ii) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must comply with all filing requirements of subpart E of this part., (iii) The mutual holding company must submit an opinion of independent legal counsel indicating that the sale of the shares complies with all applicable state securities law requirements., (iv) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must comply with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations., (v) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must satisfy any other requirements or conditions the Board may impose., (2) The Board may condition approval of a voluntary supervisory conversion application on either of the following:, (i) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must satisfy any conditions and restrictions the Board imposes to prevent unsafe or unsound practices, to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund and the public interest, and to prevent potential injury or detriment to the mutual holding company before and after the conversion. The Board may impose these conditions and restrictions on the mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company (before and after the conversion), the acquiror, controlling parties, or directors and officers of the mutual holding company or the acquiror; or, (ii) The mutual holding company or the resulting stock holding company must infuse a larger amount of capital, if necessary, for safety and soundness reasons.


(a) Terms set forth in § 1240.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 1240.2., (b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:, Backtesting means the comparison of an Enterprise's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. For purposes of this subpart, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing., Covered position means, any asset that has more than de minimis spread risk (other than any intangible asset, such as any servicing asset), including:, (i) Any NPL, RPL, reverse mortgage loan, or other mortgage exposure that, in any case, does not secure an MBS guaranteed by the Enterprise;, (ii) Any MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise, MBS guaranteed by Ginnie Mae, reverse mortgage security, PLS, commercial MBS, CRT exposure, or other securitization exposure, regardless of whether the position is held by the Enterprise for the purpose of short-term resale or with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements, or to lock in arbitrage profits; and, (iii) Any other trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet).1<FTREF/>, 1 Securities subject to repurchase and lending agreements are included as if they are still owned by the Enterprise., Market risk means the risk of loss on a position that could result from movements in market prices, including spread risk., Private label security (PLS) means any MBS that is collateralized by a pool or pools of single-family mortgage exposures and that is not guaranteed by an Enterprise or by Ginnie Mae., Reverse mortgage means a mortgage loan secured by a residential property in which a homeowner relinquishes equity in their home in exchange for regular payments., Reverse mortgage security means a security collateralized by reverse mortgages., Spread risk means the risk of loss on a position that could result from a change in the bid or offer price of such position relative to a risk free or funding benchmark, including when due to a change in perceptions of performance or liquidity of the position.


Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act and which merges with another credit union or non-credit union institution, and any state-chartered credit union which voluntarily terminates its status as a federally insured credit union, or converts from federal insurance to other insurance from a government or private source authorized to insure member accounts, shall adhere to the applicable requirements stated in section 206 of the Act and parts 708a and 708b of this chapter concerning mergers and voluntary termination or conversion of insured status.


A qualified lender must maintain a complete file of all requests for CRC reviews, including participation in state mediation programs, the minutes of each CRC meeting, and the disposition of each review by the CRC.