(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following additional definitions apply:, 100 percent liquidity coverage means an amount equal to the outstanding balance of all ABCP issued by the conduit plus any accrued and unpaid interest without regard to the performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit and without regard to any credit enhancement., ABCP means asset-backed commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 397 days, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited., ABCP conduit means an issuing entity with respect to ABCP., Eligible ABCP conduit means an ABCP conduit, provided that:, (1) The ABCP conduit is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the sponsor of the ABCP conduit and from any intermediate SPV;, (2) The ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit are:, (i) ABS interests collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets;, (ii) Special units of beneficial interest (or similar ABS interests) in a trust or special purpose vehicle that retains legal title to leased property underlying leases originated by an originator-seller that were transferred to an intermediate SPV in connection with a securitization collateralized solely by such leases and by servicing assets;, (iii) ABS interests in a revolving pool securitization collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets; or, (iv) ABS interests described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition that are collateralized, in whole or in part, by assets acquired by an originator-seller in a business combination that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP, and, if collateralized in part, the remainder of such assets are assets described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition; and, (v) Acquired by the ABCP conduit in an initial issuance by or on behalf of an intermediate SPV:, (A) Directly from the intermediate SPV,, (B) From an underwriter of the ABS interests issued by the intermediate SPV, or, (C) From another person who acquired the ABS interests directly from the intermediate SPV;, (3) The ABCP conduit is collateralized solely by ABS interests acquired from intermediate SPVs as described in paragraph (2) of this definition and servicing assets; and, (4) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage (in the form of a lending facility, an asset purchase agreement, a repurchase agreement, or other similar arrangement) to all the ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit by lending to, purchasing ABCP issued by, or purchasing assets from, the ABCP conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit. With respect to the 100 percent liquidity coverage, in the event that the ABCP conduit is unable for any reason to repay maturing ABCP issued by the issuing entity, the liquidity provider shall be obligated to pay an amount equal to any shortfall, and the total amount that may be due pursuant to the 100 percent liquidity coverage shall be equal to 100 percent of the amount of the ABCP outstanding at any time plus accrued and unpaid interest (amounts due pursuant to the required liquidity coverage may not be subject to credit performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit or reduced by the amount of credit support provided to the ABCP conduit and liquidity support that only funds performing loans or receivables or performing ABS interests does not meet the requirements of this section)., Intermediate SPV means a special purpose vehicle that:, (1)(i) Is a direct or indirect wholly-owned affiliate of the originator-seller; or, (ii) Has nominal equity owned by a trust or corporate service provider that specializes in providing independent ownership of special purpose vehicles, and such trust or corporate service provider is not affiliated with any other transaction parties;, (2) Is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the eligible ABCP conduit and from each originator-seller and each majority-owned affiliate in each case that, directly or indirectly, sells or transfers assets to such intermediate SPV;, (3) Acquires assets from the originator-seller that are originated by the originator-seller or acquired by the originator-seller in the acquisition of a business that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP or acquires ABS interests issued by another intermediate SPV of the originator-seller that are collateralized solely by such assets; and, (4) Issues ABS interests collateralized solely by such assets, as applicable., Originator-seller means an entity that originates assets and sells or transfers those assets, directly or through a majority-owned affiliate, to an intermediate SPV, and includes (except for the purposes of identifying the sponsorship and affiliation of an intermediate SPV pursuant to this § 373.6) any affiliate of the originator-seller that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, the originator-seller. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP., Regulated liquidity provider means:, (1) A depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813));, (2) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), or a subsidiary thereof;, (3) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), or a subsidiary thereof; or, (4) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor (as defined in § 211.21 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21)) has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof., (b) In general. An ABCP conduit sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirement of § 373.3 with respect to the issuance of ABCP by an eligible ABCP conduit in a securitization transaction if, for each ABS interest the ABCP conduit acquires from an intermediate SPV:, (1) An originator-seller of the intermediate SPV retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the assets collateralizing the ABS interest acquired by the eligible ABCP conduit in the amount and manner required under § 373.4 or § 373.5; and, (2) The ABCP conduit sponsor:, (i) Approves each originator-seller permitted to sell or transfer assets, directly or indirectly, to an intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit acquires ABS interests;, (ii) Approves each intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit is permitted to acquire ABS interests;, (iii) Establishes criteria governing the ABS interests, and the securitized assets underlying the ABS interests, acquired by the ABCP conduit;, (iv) Administers the ABCP conduit by monitoring the ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit and the assets supporting those ABS interests, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, and ensuring compliance with the ABCP conduit documents and with the ABCP conduit's credit and investment policy; and, (v) Maintains and adheres to policies and procedures for ensuring that the requirements in this paragraph (b) of this section have been met., (c) Originator-seller compliance with risk retention. The use of the risk retention option provided in this section by an ABCP conduit sponsor does not relieve the originator-seller that sponsors ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit from such originator-seller's obligation to comply with its own risk retention obligations under this part., (d) Disclosures - (1) Periodic disclosures to investors. An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to each purchaser of ABCP, before or contemporaneously with the first sale of ABCP to such purchaser and at least monthly thereafter, to each holder of commercial paper issued by the ABCP conduit, in writing, each of the following items of information, which shall be as of a date not more than 60 days prior to date of first use with investors:, (i) The name and form of organization of the regulated liquidity provider that provides liquidity coverage to the eligible ABCP conduit, including a description of the material terms of such liquidity coverage, and notice of any failure to fund., (ii) With respect to each ABS interest held by the ABCP conduit:, (A) The asset class or brief description of the underlying securitized assets;, (B) The standard industrial category code (SIC Code) for the originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction; and, (C) A description of the percentage amount of risk retention pursuant to the rule by the originator-seller, and whether it is in the form of an eligible horizontal residual interest, vertical interest, or revolving pool securitization seller's interest, as applicable., (2) Disclosures to regulators regarding originator-sellers. An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing, all of the information required to be provided to investors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the name and form of organization of each originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction., (e) Sale or transfer of ABS interests between eligible ABCP conduits. At any time, an eligible ABCP conduit that acquired an ABS interest in accordance with the requirements set forth in this section may transfer, and another eligible ABCP conduit may acquire, such ABS interest, if the following conditions are satisfied:, (1) The sponsors of both eligible ABCP conduits are in compliance with this section; and, (2) The same regulated liquidity provider has entered into one or more legally binding commitments to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage to all the ABCP issued by both eligible ABCP conduits., (f) Duty to comply. (1) The ABCP conduit sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section., (2) An ABCP conduit sponsor relying on this section:, (i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor compliance by each originator-seller which is satisfying a risk retention obligation in respect of ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and, (ii) In the event that the ABCP conduit sponsor determines that an originator-seller no longer complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:, (A) Promptly notify the holders of the ABCP, and upon request, the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing of:, (1) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that fails to retain risk in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit;, (2) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that hedges, directly or indirectly through an intermediate SPV, its risk retention in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit; and, (3) Any remedial actions taken by the ABCP conduit sponsor or other party with respect to such ABS interests; and, (B) Take other appropriate steps pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section which may include, as appropriate, curing any breach of the requirements in this section, or removing from the eligible ABCP conduit any ABS interest that does not comply with the requirements in this section.


Any person appearing or practicing before the FCA who has been or is the subject of a conviction, suspension, debarment, license revocation, injunction or other finding of the kind described in § 623.4 (b) or (c) of this part is an action not instituted by the FCA shall promptly file a copy of the relevant order, judgment or decree with the Board together with any related opinion or statement of the agency or tribunal involved. Any person who fails to file a copy of such an order, judgment or decree within 30 days after the later of the entry of the order, judgment or decree, or the date such person initiates practice before the FCA, for that reason alone may be disqualified from practicing before the FCA until such time as the appropriate filing shall be made, but neither the filing of these documents nor the failure of a person to file them shall in any way impair the operation of any other provision of this part.


(a) Exclusion of QFCs with FMUs. Notwithstanding § 382.2 of this part, a covered FSI is not required to conform to the requirements of this part a covered QFC to which:, (1) A CCP is party; or, (2) Each party (other than the covered FSI) is an FMU., (b) Exclusion of certain covered entity and covered bank QFCs. If a covered QFC is also a covered QFC under part 252 or part 47 of this title that an affiliate of the covered FSI is also required to conform pursuant to part 252 or part 47 and the covered FSI is:, (1) The affiliate credit enhancement provider with respect to the covered QFC, then the covered FSI is required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part; or, (2) The direct party to which the covered entity or covered bank is the affiliate credit enhancement provider, then the covered FSI is required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part., (c) Exclusion of certain contracts. Notwithstanding § 382.2 of this part, a covered FSI is not required to conform the following types of contracts or agreements to the requirements of this part:, (1) An investment advisory contract that:, (i) Is with a retail customer or counterparty;, (ii) Does not explicitly restrict the transfer of the contract (or any QFC entered into pursuant thereto or governed thereby, or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, any such QFC or the contract) from the covered FSI except as necessary to comply with section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-5(a)(2)); and, (iii) Does not explicitly provide a default right with respect to the contract or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby., (2) A warrant that:, (i) Evidences a right to subscribe to or otherwise acquire a security of the covered FSI or an affiliate of the covered FSI; and, (ii) Was issued prior to January 1, 2018., (d) Exemption by order. The FDIC may exempt by order one or more covered FSI(s) from conforming one or more contracts or types of contracts to one or more of the requirements of this part after considering:, (1) The potential impact of the exemption on the ability of the covered FSI(s), or affiliates of the covered FSI(s), to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;, (2) The burden the exemption would relieve; and, (3) Any other factor the FDIC deems relevant.


(a) Regular submissions. Each covered company must submit to the Board such data, on a consolidated basis, that the Board determines is necessary in order for the Board to derive the relevant pro forma estimates of the covered company over the planning horizon under the scenarios described in § 252.44(b)., (b) Additional submissions required by the Board. The Board may require a covered company to submit any other information on a consolidated basis that the Board deems necessary in order to:, (1) Ensure that the Board has sufficient information to conduct its analysis under this subpart; and, (2) Project a company's pre-provision net revenue, losses, provision for credit losses, and net income; and pro forma capital levels, regulatory capital ratios, and any other capital ratio specified by the Board under the scenarios described in § 252.44(b)., (c) Confidential treatment of information submitted. The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).


(a) The Board of Governors has been presented with the question whether a certain firm is primarily engaged in the activities described in section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933. If the firm is so engaged, then the prohibitions of section 32 forbids a limited partner to serve as employee of a member bank. , (b) The firm describes the bulk of its business, producing roughly 60 percent of its income, as “investing for its own account.” However, it has a seat on the local stock exchange, and acts as specialist and odd-lot dealer on the floor of the exchange, an activity responsible for some 30 percent of its volume and profits. The firm's “off-post trading,” apart from the investment account, gives rise to about 5 percent of its total volume and 10 percent of its profits. Gross volume has risen from $4 to $10 million over the past 3 years, but underwriting has accounted for no more than one-half of 1 percent of that amount. , (c) Section 32 provides that, No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner, or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale, or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve the same time (sic) as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *, (d) In interpreting this language, the Board has consistently held that underwriting, acting as a dealer, or generally speaking, selling, or distributing securities as a principal, is covered by the section, while acting as broker or agent is not. , (e) In one type of situation, however, although a firm was engaged in selling securities as principal, on its own behalf, the Board held that section 32 did not apply. In these cases, the firm alleged that it bought and sold securities purely for investment purposes. Typically, those cases involved personal holding companies or small family investment companies. Securities had been purchased only for members of a restricted family group, and had been held for relatively long periods of time. , (f) The question now before the Board is whether a similar exception can apply in the case of the investment account of a professional dealer. In order to answer this question, it is necessary to analyze, in the light of applicable principles under the statute, the three main types of activity in which the firm has been engaged, (1) acting as specialist and odd-lot dealer, (2) off-post trading as an ordinary dealer, and (3) investing for its own account. , (g) On several occasions, the Board has held that, to the extent the trading of a specialist or odd-lot dealer is limited to that required for him to perform his function on the floor of the exchange, he is acting essentially in an agency capacity. In a letter of September 13, 1934, the Board held that the business of a specialist was not of the kind described in the (unamended) section on the understanding that, * * * in acting as specialists on the New York Curb Exchange, it is necessary for the firm to buy and sell odd lots and * * * in order to protect its position after such transactions have been made, the firm sells or buys shares in lots of 100 or multiples thereof in order to reduce its position in the stock in question to the smallest amount possible by this method. It appears therefore that, in connection with these transactions, the firm is neither trading in the stock in question or taking a position in it except to the extent made necessary by the fact that it deals in odd lots and cannot complete the transactions by purchases and sales on the floor of the exchange except to the nearest 100 share amount., (h) While subsequent amendments to section 32 to some extent changed the definition of the kinds of securities business that would be covered by the section, the amendments were designed so far as is relevant to the present question, to embody existing interpretations of the Board. Accordingly, to the extent that the firm's business is described by the above letter of the Board, it should not be considered to be of a kind described in section 32. , (i) Turning to the firm's off-post trading, the Board is inclined to agree with the view that this is sufficient to make the case a borderline one under the statute. In the circumstances, the Board might prefer to postpone making a determination until figures for 1965 could be reviewed, particularly in the light of the recent increase in total volume, if it were not for the third category, the firm's own investment account. , (j) While this question has not been squarely presented to it in the past, the Board is of the opinion that when a firm is doing any significant amount of business as a dealer or underwriter, then investments for the firm's own account should be taken into consideration in determining whether the firm is “primarily engaged” in the activities described in section 32. The division into dealing for one's own account, and dealing with customers, is a highly subjective one, and although a particular firm or individual may be quite scrupulous in separating the two, the opportunity necessarily exists for the kind of abuse at which the statute is directed. The Act is designed to prevent situations from arising in which a bank director, officer, or employee could influence the bank or its customers to invest in securities in which his firm has an interest, regardless of whether he, as an individual, is likely to do so. In the present case, when these activities are added to the firm's “off-post trading”, the firm clearly falls within the statutory definition. , (k) For the reasons just discussed, the Board concludes that the firm must be considered to be primarily engaged in activities described in section 32, and that the prohibitions of the section forbid a limited partner in that firm to serve as employee of a member bank.


(a) Grounds for termination - (1) General. Under sections 7(e) and 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d), 3107(b)), the Board may order a foreign bank to terminate the activities of its representative office, state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary if the Board finds that: , (i) The foreign bank is not subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision in accordance with § 211.24(c)(1), and the home country supervisor is not making demonstrable progress in establishing arrangements for the consolidated supervision of the foreign bank; or , (ii) Both of the following criteria are met: , (A) There is reasonable cause to believe that the foreign bank, or any of its affiliates, has committed a violation of law or engaged in an unsafe or unsound banking practice in the United States; and , (B) As a result of such violation or practice, the continued operation of the foreign bank's representative office, state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary would not be consistent with the public interest, or with the purposes of the IBA, the BHC Act, or the FDIA. , (2) Additional ground. The Board also may enforce any condition imposed in connection with an order issued under § 211.24. , (b) Factor. In making its findings under this section, the Board may take into account the needs of the community, the history of operation of the foreign bank, and its relative size in its home country, provided that the size of the foreign bank shall not be the sole determining factor in a decision to terminate an office. , (c) Consultation with relevant state supervisor. Except in the case of termination pursuant to the expedited procedure in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the Board shall request and consider the views of the relevant state supervisor before issuing an order terminating the activities of a state branch, state agency, representative office, or commercial lending company subsidiary under this section. , (d) Termination procedures - (1) Notice and hearing. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, an order issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be issued only after notice to the relevant state supervisor and the foreign bank and after an opportunity for a hearing. , (2) Procedures for hearing. Hearings under this section shall be conducted pursuant to the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR part 263). , (3) Expedited procedure. The Board may act without providing an opportunity for a hearing, if it determines that expeditious action is necessary in order to protect the public interest. When the Board finds that it is necessary to act without providing an opportunity for a hearing, the Board, solely in its discretion, may: , (i) Provide the foreign bank that is the subject of the termination order with notice of the intended termination order; , (ii) Grant the foreign bank an opportunity to present a written submission opposing issuance of the order; or , (iii) Take any other action designed to provide the foreign bank with notice and an opportunity to present its views concerning the order. , (e) Termination of federal branch or federal agency. The Board may transmit to the Comptroller a recommendation that the license of a federal branch or federal agency be terminated if the Board has reasonable cause to believe that the foreign bank or any affiliate of the foreign bank has engaged in conduct for which the activities of a state branch or state agency may be terminated pursuant to this section. , (f) Voluntary termination. A foreign bank shall notify the Board at least 30 days prior to terminating the activities of any office. Notice pursuant to this paragraph (f) is in addition to, and does not satisfy, any other federal or state requirements relating to the termination of an office or the requirement for prior notice of the closing of a branch, pursuant to section 39 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831p).


(a) General requirements for the SSFA. To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, an Enterprise must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. An Enterprise that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure., (b) SSFA parameters. To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, an Enterprise must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:, (1) K<E T="54">G is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) adjusted total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using this subpart. K<E T="54">G is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of KG equal to 0.08)., (2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:, (i) Ninety days or more past due;, (ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;, (iii) In the process of foreclosure;, (iv) Held as real estate owned;, (v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:, (A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or, (B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or, (vi) Is in default., (3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 1240.42(g) for nth-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the Enterprise to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the Enterprise's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one., (4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 1240.42(g) for nth-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are pari passu with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one., (5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures (except p is equal to 0.5 for resecuritization exposures secured by MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise)., (c) Mechanics of the SSFA. K<E T="54">G and W are used to calculate K<E T="54">A, the augmented value of K<E T="54">G, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="54">A is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="54">A determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 20 percent., (1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="54">A, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent., (2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="54">A, the Enterprise must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section., (3) When A is less than K<E T="54">A and D is greater than K<E T="54">A, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:, (i) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent equals, (ii) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent times K<E T="54">SSFA equals, (iii) The risk weight will be set equal to:, (d) SSFA equation. (1) The Enterprise must define the following parameters:, e = 2.71828, the base of the natural logarithms., (2) Then the Enterprise must calculate K<E T="54">SSFA according to the following equation:, (3) The risk weight for the exposure (expressed as a percent) is equal to K<E T="54">SSFA * 1,250., (e) Limitations. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an Enterprise must assign a risk weight of not less than 20 percent to a securitization exposure.


(a) Maximum loan value of margin stock. The maximum loan value of any margin stock is fifty per cent of its current market value., (b) Maximum loan value of nonmargin stock and all other collateral. The maximum loan value of nonmargin stock and all other collateral except puts, calls, or combinations thereof is their good faith loan value., (c) Maximum loan value of options. Except for options that qualify as margin stock, puts, calls, and combinations thereof have no loan value.


(a) General rule. The following are grounds for involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA: , (1) An insured depository institution or its directors or trustees have engaged or are engaging in unsafe or unsound practices in conducting the business of such depository institution; , (2) An insured depository institution is in an unsafe or unsound condition such that it should not continue operations as an insured depository institution; or , (3) An insured depository institution or its directors or trustees have violated an applicable law, rule, regulation, order, condition imposed in writing by the FDIC in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the insured depository institution or have violated any written agreement entered into between the insured depository institution and the FDIC. , (b) Extraterritorial acts of foreign banks. An act or practice committed outside the United States by a foreign bank or its directors or trustees which would otherwise be a ground for termination of insured status under this section shall be a ground for termination if the Board of Directors finds: , (1) The act or practice has been, is, or is likely to be a cause of, or carried on in connection with or in furtherance of, an act or practice committed within any state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia that, in and of itself, would be an appropriate basis for action by the FDIC; or , (2) The act or practice committed outside the United States, if proven, would adversely affect the insurance risk of the FDIC. , (c) Failure of foreign bank to secure removal of personnel. The failure of a foreign bank to comply with any order of removal or prohibition issued by the Board of Directors or the failure of any person associated with a foreign bank to appear promptly as a party to a proceeding pursuant to section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)), shall be a ground for termination of insurance of deposits in any branch of the bank.


(a) The Board of Governors recently considered whether a bank holding may acquire, either directly or through a subsidiary, the stock of a so-called “mortgage company” that would be operated on the following basis: The company would solicit mortgage loans on behalf of a bank in the holding company system, assemble credit information, make property inspections and appraisals, and secure title information. The company would also participate in the preparation of applications for mortgage loans, which it would submit, together with recommendations with respect to action thereon, to the bank, which alone would decide whether to make any or all of the loans requested. The company would in addition solicit investors to purchase mortgage loans from the bank and would seek to have such investors contract with the bank for the servicing of such loans. , (b) Under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843), a bank holding company is generally prohibited from acquiring “direct or indirect ownership” of stock of nonbanking corporations. The two exceptions principally involved in the question presented are with respect to (1) stock that is eligible for investment by a national bank (section 4(c)(5) of the Act) and (2) shares of a company “furnishing services to or performing services for such bank holding company or its banking subsidiaries” (section 4(c)(1)(C) of the Act). , (c) The Board has previously indicated its view that a national bank is forbidden by the so-called “stock-purchase prohibition” of paragraph “Seventh” of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24) to purchase “for its own account * * * any shares of stock of any corporation” except (1) to the extent permitted by specific provisions of Federal law or (2) as comprised within the concept of “such incidental powers as shall be necessary to carry on the business of banking” referred to in the first sentence of said paragraph “Seventh”. There is no specific statutory provision authorizing a national bank to purchase stock in a mortgage company, and in the Board's view such purchase may not properly be regarded as authorized under the “incidental powers” clause. (See 1966 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1151; 12 CFR 208.119.) Accordingly, a bank holding company may not acquire stock in a mortgage company on the basis of the section 4(c)(5) exemption. , (d) However, the Board does not believe that such conclusion prejudices consideration of the question whether such a company is within the section 4(c)(1)(C) “servicing exemption”. The basic purpose of section 4 of the Act is to confine a bank holding company's activities to the management and control of banks. In determining whether an activity in which a bank could itself engage is within the servicing exemption, the question is simply whether such activity may appropriately be considered as “furnishing services to or performing services for” a bank. , (e) As indicated in the Board's interpretation published in the 1958 Federal Reserve Bulletin at page 431 (12 CFR 225.104), the legislative history of the servicing exemption indicates that it includes the following activities: “auditing, appraising, investment counseling” and “advertising, public relations, developing new business, organization, operations, preparing tax returns, and personnel”. The legislative history further indicates that some other activities also are within the scope of the exemption. However, the types of servicing permitted under such exemption must be distinguished from activities of a “financial fiduciary, or insurance nature”, such as those that might be considered for possible exemption under section 4(c)(8) of the Act. , (f) In considering the interrelation of these exemptions in the light of the purpose of the prohibition against bank holding company interests in nonbanking organizations, the Board has concluded that the appropriate test for determining whether a mortgage company may be considered as within the servicing exemption is whether the company will perform as principal any banking activities - such as receiving deposits, paying checks, extending credit, conducting a trust department, and the like. In other words, if the mortgage company is to act merely as an adjunct to a bank for the purpose of facilitating the banks operations, the company may appropriately be considered as within the scope of the servicing exemption. 1<FTREF/>, 1 Insofar as the 1958 interpretation referred to above suggested that the branch banking laws are an appropriate general test for determining the scope of the servicing exemption, such interpretation is hereby modified. In view of the different purposes to be served by the branch banking laws and by section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act, the Board has concluded that basing determinations under the latter solely on the basis of determinations under the former is inappropriate., (g) On this basis the Board concluded that, insofar as the Bank Holding Company Act is concerned, a bank holding company may acquire, either directly or through a subsidiary, the stock of a mortgage company whose functions are as described in the question presented. On the other hand, in the Board's view, a bank holding company may not acquire, on the basis of the servicing exemption, a mortgage company whose functions include such activities as extending credit for its own account, arranging interim financing, entering into mortgage service contracts on a fee basis, or otherwise performing functions other than solely on behalf of a bank.


The purpose of this part is to implement a prohibition against an Enterprise redirecting the cost of any allocation to the Housing Trust Fund or the Capital Magnet Fund to originators of mortgages purchased or securitized by an Enterprise.


(a) Copies of transcripts, recordings or transcriptions of recordings, or minutes requested pursuant to section § 261b.12(b) of this part will be provided at the cost of 10¢ per standard page for photocopying or at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of printing, typing, or otherwise preparing such copies. , (b) Documents may be furnished without charge where total charges are less than $2.


The Board shall make reasonable efforts to voluntarily settle complaints of discrimination as early as possible in, and throughout, the administrative processing of complaints, including the pre-complaint counseling stage. Any settlement reached shall be in writing and signed by both parties and shall identify the claims resolved.


(a) Section 2(g)(3) of the Bank Holding Company Act (the “Act”) establishes a statutory presumption that where certain specified relationships exist between a transferor and transferee of shares, the transferor (if it is a bank holding company, or a company that would be such but for the transfer) continues to own or control indirectly the transferred shares. 1<FTREF/> This presumption arises by operation of law, as of the date of the transfer, without the need for any order or determination by the Board. Operation of the presumption may be terminated only by the issuance of a Board determination, after opportunity for hearing, “that the transferor is not in fact capable of controlling the transferee.” 2<FTREF/>, 1 The presumption arises where the transferee “is indebted to the transferor, or has one or more officers, directors, trustees, or beneficiaries in common with or subject to control by the transferor.”, 2 The Board has delegated to its General Counsel the authority to issue such determinations, 12 CFR 265.2(b)(1)., (b) The purpose of section 2(g)(3) is to provide the Board an opportunity to assess the effectiveness of divestitures in certain situations in which there may be a risk that the divestiture will not result in the complete termination of a control relationship. By presuming control to continue as a matter of law, section 2(g)(3) operates to allow the effectiveness of the divestiture to be assessed before the divesting company is permitted to act on the assumption that the divestiture is complete. Thus, for example, if a holding company divests its banking interest under circumstances where the presumption of continued control arises, the divesting company must continue to consider itself bound by the Act until an appropriate order is entered by the Board dispelling the presumption. Section 2(g)(3) does not establish a substantive rule that invalidates transfers to which it applies, and in a great many cases the Board has acted favorably on applications to have the presumption dispelled. It merely provides a procedural opportunity for Board consideration of the effect of such transfers in advance of their being deemed effective. Whether or not the statutory presumption arises, the substantive test for assessing the effectiveness of a divestiture is the same - that is, the Board must be assured that all control relationships between the transferor and the transferred property have been terminated and will not be reestablished. 3<FTREF/>, 3 It should be noted, however, that the Board will require termination of any interlocking management relationships between the divesting company and the transferee or the divested company as a precondition of finding that a divestiture is complete. Similarly, the retention of an economic interest in the divested company that would create an incentive for the divesting company to attempt to influence the management of the divested company will preclude a finding that the divestiture is complete. (See the Board's Order in the matter of “International Bank”, 1977 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1106, 1113.), (c) In the course of administering section 2(g)(3) the Board has had several occasions to consider the scope of that section. In addition, questions have been raised by and with the Board's staff as to coverage of the section. Accordingly, the Board believes it would be useful to set forth the following interpretations of section 2(g)(3): , (1) The terms transferor and transferee, as used in section 2(g)(3), include parents and subsidiaries of each. Thus, for example, where a transferee is indebted to a subsidiary of the transferor, or where a specified interlocking relationship exists between the transferor or transferee and a subsidiary of the other (or between subsidiaries of each), the presumption arises. Similarly, if a parent of the transferee is indebted to a parent of the transferor, the presumption arises. The presumption of continued control also arises where an interlock or debt relationship is retained between the divesting company and the company being divested, since the divested company will be or may be viewed as a subsidiary of the transferee or group of transferees. , (2) The terms officers, directors, and trustees, as used in section 2(g)(3), include persons performing functions normally associated with such positions (including general partners in a partnership and limited partners having a right to participate in the management of the affairs of the partnership) as well as persons holding such positions in an advisory or honorary capacity. The presumption arises not only where the transferee or transferred company has an officer, director or trustee in common with the transferor, but where the transferee himself holds such a position with the transferor. 4<FTREF/> It should be noted that where a transfer takes the form of a pro-rata distribution, or spin-off, of shares to a company's shareholders, officers and directors of the transferor company are likely to receive a portion of such shares. The presumption of continued control would, of course, attach to any shares transferred to officers and directors of the divesting company, whether by spinoff or outright sale. However, the presumption will be of legal significance - and will thus require an application under section 2(g)(3) - only where the total number of shares subject to the presumption exceeds one of the applicable thresholds in the Act. For example, where officers and directors of a one-bank holding company receive in the aggregate 25 percent or more of the stock of a bank subsidiary being divested by the holding company, the holding company would be presumed to continue to control the divested bank. In such a case it would be necessary for the divesting company to demonstrate that it no longer controls either the divested bank or the officer/director transferees. However, if officers and directors were to receive in the aggregate less than 25 percent of the bank's stock (and no other shares were subject to the presumption), section 2(g)(3) would not have the legal effect of presuming continued control of the bank. 5<FTREF/> In the case of a divestiture of nonbank shares, an application under section 2(g)(3) would be required whenever officers and directors of the divesting company received in the aggregate more than 5 percent of the shares of the company being divested. , 4 It has been suggested that the words in common with in section 2(g)(3) evidence an intent to make the presumption applicable only where the transferee is a company having an interlock with the transferor. Such an interpretation would, in the Board's view, create an unwarranted gap in the coverage of section 2(g)(3). Furthermore, because the presumption clearly arises where the transferee is an individual who is indebted to the transferor such an interpretation would result in an illogical internal inconsistency in the statute., 5 Of course, the fact that section 2(g)(3) would not operate to presume continued control would not necessarily mean that control had in fact been terminated if control could be exercised through other means., (3) Although section 2(g)(3) refers to transfers of shares it is not, in the Board's view, limited to disposition of corporate stock. General or limited partnership interests, for example, are included within the term shares. Furthermore, the transfer of all or substantially all of the assets of a company, or the transfer of such a significant volume of assets that the transfer may in effect constitute the disposition of a separate activity of the company, is deemed by the Board to involve a transfer of shares of that company. , (4) The term indebtedness giving rise to the presumption of continued control under section 2(g)(3) of the Act is not limited to debt incurred in connection with the transfer; it includes any debt outstanding at the time of transfer from the transferee to the transferor or its subsidiaries. However, the Board believes that not every kind of indebtedness was within the contemplation of the Congress when section 2(g)(3) was adopted. Routine business credit of limited amounts and loans for personal or household purposes are generally not the kinds of indebtedness that, standing alone, support a presumption that the creditor is able to control the debtor. Accordingly, the Board does not regard the presumption of section 2(g)(3) as applicable to the following categories of credit, provided the extensions of credit are not secured by the transferred property and are made in the ordinary course of business of the transferor (or its subsidiary) that is regularly engaged in the business of extending credit:, (i) Consumer credit extended for personal or household use to an individual transferee; (ii) student loans made for the education of the individual transferee or a spouse or child of the transferee; (iii) a home mortgage loan made to an individual transferee for the purchase of a residence for the individual's personal use and secured by the residence; and (iv) loans made to companies (as defined in section 2(b) of the Act) in an aggregate amount not exceeding ten per cent of the total purchase price (or if not sold, the fair market value) of the transferred property. The amounts and terms of the preceding categories of credit should not differ substantially from similar credit extended in comparable circumstances to others who are not transferees. It should be understood that, while the statutory presumption in situations involving these categories of credit may not apply, the Board is not precluded in any case from examining the facts of a particular transfer and finding that the divestiture of control was ineffective based on the facts of record., (d) Section 2(g)(3) provides that a Board determination that a transferor is not in fact capable of controlling a transferee shall be made after opportunity for hearing. It has been the Board's routine practice since 1966 to publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register of applications filed under section 2(g)(3) and to offer interested parties an opportunity for a hearing. Virtually without exception no comments have been submitted on such applications by parties other than the applicant and, with the exception of one case in which the request was later withdrawn, no hearings have been requested in such cases. Because the Board believes that the hearing provision in section 2(g)(3) was intended as a protection for applicants who are seeking to have the presumption overcome by a Board order, a hearing would not be of use where an application is to be granted. In light of the experience indicating that the publication of <E T="04">Federal Register notice of such applications has not served a useful purpose, the Board has decided to alter its procedures in such cases. In the future, <E T="04">Federal Register notice of section 2(g)(3) applications will be published only in cases in which the Board's General Counsel, acting under delegated authority, has determined not to grant such an application and has referred the matter to the Board for decision. 6<FTREF/>, 6 It should be noted that in the event a third party should take exception to a Board order under section 2(g)(3) finding that control has been terminated, any rights such party might have would not be prejudiced by the order. If such party brought facts to the Board's attention indicating that control had not been terminated the Board would have ample authority to revoke its order and take necessary remedial action. , Orders issued under section 2(g)(3) are published in the Federal Reserve “Bulletin.”


(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether, in determining under section 24A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371d) how much may be invested in bank premises without prior Board approval, a State member bank, which is owned by a registered bank holding company, is required to include indebtedness of a corporation, wholly owned by the holding company, that is engaged in holding premises of banks in the holding company system. , (b) Section 24A provides, in part, as follows: , Hereafter * * * no State member bank, without the approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, shall (1) invest in bank premises, or in the stock, bonds, debentures, or other such obligations of any corporation holding the premises of such bank or (2) make loans to or upon the security of the stock of any such corporation, if the aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation which is an affiliate of the bank, as defined in section 2 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended 12 U.S.C. 221a, will exceed the amount of the capital stock of such banks., (c) A corporation that is owned by a holding company is an “affiliate of each of the holding company's majority-owned banks as that term is defined in said section 2. Therefore, under the explicit provisions of section 24A, each State member bank, any part of whose premises is owned by such an affiliate, must include the affiliate's total indebtedness in determining whether a proposed premises investment by the bank would cause the aggregate figure to exceed the amount of the bank's capital stock, so that the Board's prior approval would be required. Where the affiliate holds the premises of a number of the holding company's banks, the amount of the affiliate's indebtedness may be so large that Board approval is required for every proposed investment in bank premises by each majority-owned State member bank, to which the entire indebtedness of the affiliate is required to be attributed. The Board believes that, in these circumstances, individual approvals are not essential to effectuate the purpose of section 24A, which is to safeguard the soundness and liquidity of member banks, and that the protection sought by Congress can be achieved by a suitably circumscribed general approval., (d) Accordingly the Board hereby grants general approval for any investment or loan (as described in section 24A) by any State member bank, the majority of the stock of which is owned by a registered bank holding company, if the proposed investment or loan will not cause either (1) all such investments and loans by the member bank (together with the indebtedness of any bank premises subsidiary thereof) to exceed 100 percent of the bank's capital stock, or (2) the aggregate of such investments and loans by all of the holding company's subsidiary banks (together with the indebtedness of any bank premises affiliates thereof) to exceed 100 percent of the aggregate capital stock of said banks.


The party requesting a subpoena must pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage must accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the FDIC, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena.


Except as provided in section 4.2(e) of the Act, each debt obligation shall meet the following requirements:, (a) Each debt obligation shall be issued through the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation acting for System banks. , (b) Each debt obligation shall be authorized by resolution of the board(s) of directors of the issuer(s). Each participating bank shall provide, in its authorizing resolution, for its primary liability on the portion of any consolidated or Systemwide obligation issued on its behalf and be jointly and severally liable for the payment of any additional sums as called upon by the Farm Credit Administration, in accordance with section 4.4 of the Act, in the event any bank primarily liable therefor is unable to pay., (c) Each issuance of debt obligations shall meet the collateral requirements set forth in subpart B. , (d) Each issuance of debt obligations shall be approved by the Farm Credit Administration. , (e)(1) Consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury required by 31 U.S.C. 9108 shall be conducted by System representatives and shall have occurred prior to each debt issuance. , (2) Under policies adopted by the Board of the Farm Credit Administration, the Chairman will consult with the Secretary of the Treasury on a regular basis concerning the exercise by the System of the powers conferred under section 4.2 of the Act.


(a) The Farm Credit Administration Board may in its discretion appoint, ex parte and without prior notice, a receiver for the Corporation provided that one or more of the grounds for appointment as set forth in § 650.50 of this subpart exist. , (b) Upon the appointment of the receiver, the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration Board shall immediately notify the Corporation and shall publish a notice of the appointment in the <E T="04">Federal Register., (c) Upon the issuance of the order placing the Corporation into liquidation and appointing the receiver, all rights, privileges, and powers of the board of directors, officers, and employees of the Corporation shall be vested exclusively in the receiver. The Farm Credit Administration Board may cancel the charter of the Corporation on such date as the Farm Credit Administration Board determines is appropriate, but not later than the conclusion of the receivership and discharge of the receiver.


(a) Net worth measures. For purposes of this part, a new credit union must determine its capital classification quarterly according to its net worth ratio., (b) Effective date of net worth classification of new credit union. For purposes of subpart B of this part, the effective date of a new credit union's classification within a capital category in paragraph (c) of this section shall be determined as provided in § 702.101(c); and written notice of a decline in net worth classification in paragraph (c) of this section shall be given as required by § 702.101(c)., (c) Net worth categories. A credit union defined as “new” under this section shall be classified - , (1) Well capitalized if it has a net worth ratio of seven percent (7%) or greater;, (2) Adequately capitalized if it has a net worth ratio of six percent (6%) or more but less than seven percent (7%);, (3) Moderately capitalized if it has a net worth ratio of three and one-half percent (3.5%) or more but less than six percent (6%);, (4) Marginally capitalized if it has a net worth ratio of two percent (2%) or more but less than three and one-half percent (3.5%);, (5) Minimally capitalized if it has a net worth ratio of zero percent (0%) or greater but less than two percent (2%); and, (6) Uncapitalized if it has a net worth ratio of less than zero percent (0%)., <P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 702.202 - Capital Categories for New Credit Unions, (d) Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than net worth. Subject to § 702.102(b), the NCUA Board may reclassify a well capitalized, adequately capitalized or moderately capitalized new credit union to the next lower capital category (each of such actions is hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassification”) in either of the circumstances prescribed in § 702.102(b)., (e) Consultation with state officials. The NCUA Board shall consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state official before reclassifying a federally insured state-chartered credit union under paragraph (d) of this section, and shall promptly notify the appropriate state official of its decision to reclassify.


(a) Prohibition against incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading disclosures. No institution and no employee, officer, director, or nominee for director of the institution shall make any disclosure to shareholders or the general public concerning any matter required to be disclosed by this part that is incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading. When any such person makes disclosure that, in the judgment of the Farm Credit Administration, is incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading, whether or not such disclosure is made in disclosure statements required by this part, such institution or person shall make such additional or corrective disclosure as is necessary to provide shareholders and the general public with a full and fair disclosure. Unless otherwise determined by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA), the appropriate use of the limited disclosure authorized by § 628.62(c) of this chapter does not create an incomplete disclosure., (b) Signatures. The name and position title of each person signing the report must be printed beneath his or her signature. If any person required to sign the report has not signed the report, the name and position title of the individual and the reason(s) such individual is unable or refuses to sign must be disclosed in the report. All reports must be dated and signed on behalf of the institution by:, (1) The chief executive officer (CEO);, (2) The chief financial officer (CFO), or if the institution has no CFO, the officer responsible for preparing financial reports; and, (3) A board member formally designated by action of the board to certify reports on behalf of individual board members., (c) Certification of financial accuracy. The report must be certified as financially accurate by the signatories to the report. If any signatory is unable to, or refuses to, certify the report, the institution must disclose the individual's name and position title and the reason(s) such individual is unable or refuses to certify the report. At a minimum, the certification must include a statement that:, (1) The signatories have reviewed the report,, (2) The report has been prepared in accordance with all applicable statutory or regulatory requirements, and, (3) The information is true, accurate, and complete to the best of signatories' knowledge and belief. If the report contains the limited disclosure authorized by § 628.62(c) of this chapter, the statement may be modified to explain that the completeness of the report was determined in consideration of § 628.62(c)., (d) Management assessment of internal control over financial reporting. Annual reports of those institutions with over $1 billion in total assets (as of the end of the prior fiscal year) must include a report by management assessing the effectiveness of the institution's internal control over financial reporting. The assessment must be conducted during the reporting period and be reported to the institution's board of directors. Quarterly and annual reports for those institutions with over $1 billion in total assets (as of the end of the prior fiscal year) must disclose any material change(s) in the internal control over financial reporting occurring during the reporting period.


(a) No person shall directly or indirectly,, (1) Employ any device, scheme or artifice to defraud,, (2) Make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make statements made, in light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading, or, (3) Engage in any act, practice, or course of business which operates as a fraud or deceit upon any person, in connection with the purchase or sale of any security of a State savings association., (b) Violations of this subpart shall constitute an unsafe or unsound practice within the meaning of section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1818., (c) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as a limitation on the applicability of section 10(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78j(b)) or Rule 10b-5 promulgated thereunder (17 CFR 240.10b-5).


A debtor's payment, whether voluntary or involuntary, of all or any portion of a debt being collected pursuant to this subpart B shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the debtor may have under any statute, regulation, or contract, except as otherwise provided by law or contract.


Acceptance by the claimant, his agent or legal representative, of any award, compromise or settlement made hereunder, shall be final and conclusive on the claimant, his agent or legal representative and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been presented, and shall constitute a complete release of any claim against the United States and any employee of the Government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim, by reason of the same subject matter.


(a) Measure of damages - (1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section or § 229.53, any person that breaches a warranty described in § 229.52 or fails to comply with any requirement of this subpart with respect to any other person shall be liable to that person for an amount equal to the sum of - , (i) The amount of the loss suffered by the person as a result of the breach or failure, up to the amount of the substitute check; and, (ii) Interest and expenses (including costs and reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses of representation) related to the substitute check., (2) Offset of recredits. The amount of damages a person receives under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be reduced by any amount that the person receives and retains as a recredit under § 229.54 or § 229.55., (3) Comparative negligence. (i) If a person incurs damages that resulted in whole or in part from that person's negligence or failure to act in good faith, then the amount of any damages due to that person under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be reduced in proportion to the amount of negligence or bad faith attributable to that person., (ii) Nothing in this paragraph (a)(3) reduces the rights of a consumer or any other person under the U.C.C. or other applicable provision of federal or state law., (b) Timeliness of action. Delay by a bank beyond any time limits prescribed or permitted by this subpart is excused if the delay is caused by interruption of communication or computer facilities, suspension of payments by another bank, war, emergency conditions, failure of equipment, or other circumstances beyond the control of the bank and if the bank uses such diligence as the circumstances require., (c) Jurisdiction. A person may bring an action to enforce a claim under this subpart in any United States district court or in any other court of competent jurisdiction. Such claim shall be brought within one year of the date on which the person's cause of action accrues. For purposes of this paragraph, a cause of action accrues as of the date on which the injured person first learns, or by which such person reasonably should have learned, of the facts and circumstances giving rise to the cause of action, including the identity of the warranting or indemnifying bank against which the action is brought., (d) Notice of claims. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d), unless a person gives notice of a claim under this section to the warranting or indemnifying bank within 30 calendar days after the person has reason to know of both the claim and the identity of the warranting or indemnifying bank, the warranting or indemnifying bank is discharged from liability in an action to enforce a claim under this subpart to the extent of any loss caused by the delay in giving notice of the claim. A timely recredit claim by a consumer under § 229.54 constitutes timely notice under this paragraph.


For purposes of this part:, Adjusted net income means net income, excluding extraordinary items such as income received from, or expense incurred in, sales of securities or fixed assets, reported on a regulatory financial report., Affiliate means any entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another entity. For purposes of this definition, one entity controls another if it:, (1) Directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons, owns, controls, or has the power to vote twenty-five (25) percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the other entity, including shares of common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests that entitle the holder:, (i) To vote for or to select directors, trustees, or partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of that entity; or, (ii) To vote on or to direct the conduct of the operations or other significant policies of that entity;, (2) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the other entity; or, (3) Otherwise has the power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the other entity through a management agreement, common directors or management officials, or by any other means., Aggregate unpaid loan principal means the aggregate unpaid principal of a subscriber's or member's home mortgage loans, home-purchase contracts and similar obligations., Allowance for loan and lease losses means a specified balance-sheet account held to fund potential losses on loans or leases, which is reported on a regulatory financial report., Appropriate regulator means:, (1) In the case of an insured depository institution or a CDFI credit union, an appropriate Federal banking agency or appropriate State regulator, as applicable; or, (2) In the case of an insurance company, an appropriate State regulator accredited by the NAIC., Captive means an entity that holds an insurance license or charter under the laws of a State, but that does not meet the definition of “insurance company” set forth in this section or fall within any other category of institution that may be eligible for membership., CDFI credit union means a State-chartered credit union that does not have Federal share insurance and that has been certified as a CDFI by the CDFI Fund., CDFI Fund means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund established under section 104(a) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4703(a))., CFI asset cap means $1 billion, as adjusted annually by FHFA, beginning in 2009, to reflect any percentage increase in the preceding year's Consumer Price Index (CPI) for all urban consumers, as published by the U.S. Department of Labor., Class A stock means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(i)) and applicable FHFA regulations., Class B stock means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(ii) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(ii)) and applicable FHFA regulations., Combination business or farm property means real property for which the total appraised value is attributable to residential, and business or farm uses., Community development financial institution or CDFI means an institution that is certified as a community development financial institution by the CDFI Fund under the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4701 et seq.), other than a bank or savings association insured under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 et seq.), a holding company for such a bank or savings association, or a credit union that has Federal share insurance., Community financial institution or CFI means an institution:, (1) The deposits of which are insured under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 et seq.); and, (2) The total assets of which, as of the date of a particular transaction, are less than the CFI asset cap, with total assets being calculated as an average of total assets over three years, with such average being based on the institution's regulatory financial reports filed with its appropriate regulator for the most recent calendar quarter and the immediately preceding 11 calendar quarters., Composite regulatory examination rating means a composite rating assigned to an institution following the guidelines of the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (issued by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council), including a CAMELS rating or other similar rating, contained in a written regulatory examination report., Consolidation means a combination of two or more business entities, and includes a consolidation of two or more entities into a new entity, a merger of one or more entities into another entity, or a purchase of substantially all of the assets and assumption of substantially all of the liabilities of an entity by another entity., CRA means the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.)., CRA performance evaluation means, unless otherwise specified, a formal performance evaluation of an institution prepared by its appropriate regulator as required by the CRA or, if such a formal evaluation is unavailable for a particular institution, an informal or preliminary evaluation., De novo insured depository institution means an insured depository institution with a charter approved by its appropriate regulator within the three years prior to the date the institution applies for Bank membership., Dwelling unit means a single room or a unified combination of rooms designed for residential use., Enforcement action means any written notice, directive, order, or agreement initiated by an applicant for Bank membership or by its appropriate regulator to address any operational, financial, managerial, or other deficiencies of the applicant identified by such regulator. An “enforcement action” does not include a board of directors' resolution adopted by the applicant in response to examination weaknesses identified by such regulator., Federal share insurance means insurance coverage of credit union member accounts provided by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund under subchapter II of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1781 et seq.)., Funded residential construction loan means the portion of a loan secured by real property made to finance the on-site construction of dwelling units on one-to-four family property or multifamily property disbursed to the borrower., Gross revenues means, in the case of a CDFI applicant, total revenues received from all sources, including grants and other donor contributions and earnings from operations., Home mortgage loan means:, (1) A loan, whether or not fully amortizing, or an interest in such a loan, which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement that creates a first lien on one of the following interests in property:, (i) One-to-four family property or multifamily property, in fee simple;, (ii) A leasehold on one-to-four family property or multifamily property under a lease of not less than 99 years that is renewable, or under a lease having a period of not less than 50 years to run from the date the mortgage was executed; or, (iii) Combination business or farm property where at least fifty (50) percent of the total appraised value of the combined property is attributable to the residential portion of the property, or in the case of any community financial institution, combination business or farm property, on which is located a permanent structure actually used as a residence (other than for temporary or seasonal housing), where the residence constitutes an integral part of the property; or, (2) A security representing:, (i) A right to receive a portion of the cash flows from a pool of long-term loans, provided that, at the time of issuance of the security, all of the loans meet the requirements of paragraph (1) of this definition; or, (ii) An interest in other securities, all of which meet the requirements of paragraph (2)(i) of this definition., Insurance company means an entity that holds an insurance license or charter under the laws of a State and whose primary business is the underwriting of insurance for persons or entities that are not its affiliates., Insured depository institution means:, (1) An insured depository institution as defined in section 2(9) of the Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1422(9)); and, (2) To the extent provided under § 1263.19, a non-federally-insured credit union., Long-term means a term to maturity of five years or greater at the time of origination., Manufactured housing means a manufactured home as defined in section 603(6) of the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5402(6))., Multifamily property means:, (1) Real property that is solely residential and includes five or more dwelling units;, (2) Real property that includes five or more dwelling units combined with commercial units, provided that the property is primarily residential; or, (3) Nursing homes, dormitories, or homes for the elderly., NAIC means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners., Non-federally-insured credit union means a State-chartered credit union that does not have Federal share insurance and that has not been certified as a CDFI by the CDFI Fund., Nonperforming loans and leases means the sum of the following, reported on a regulatory financial report:, (1) Loans and leases that have been past due for 90 days (60 days, in the case of credit union applicants) or longer but are still accruing;, (2) Loans and leases on a nonaccrual basis; and, (3) Restructured loans and leases (not already reported as nonperforming)., Nonresidential real property means real property that is not used for residential purposes, including business or industrial property, hotels, motels, churches, hospitals, educational and charitable institution buildings or facilities, clubs, lodges, association buildings, golf courses, recreational facilities, farm property not containing a dwelling unit, or similar types of property., One-to-four family property means:, (1) Real property that is solely residential, including one-to-four family dwelling units or more than four family dwelling units if each dwelling unit is separated from the other dwelling units by dividing walls that extend from ground to roof, such as row houses, townhouses, or similar types of property;, (2) Manufactured housing if applicable State law defines the purchase or holding of manufactured housing as the purchase or holding of real property;, (3) Individual condominium dwelling units or interests in individual cooperative housing dwelling units that are part of a condominium or cooperative building without regard to the number of total dwelling units therein; or, (4) Real property which includes one-to-four family dwelling units combined with commercial units, provided the property is primarily residential., Operating expenses means, in the case of a CDFI applicant, expenses for business operations, including, but not limited to, staff salaries and benefits, professional fees, interest, loan loss provision, and depreciation, contained in the applicant's audited financial statements., Other real estate owned means all other real estate owned (i.e., foreclosed and repossessed real estate), reported on a regulatory financial report, and does not include direct and indirect investments in real estate ventures., Regulatory examination report means a written report of examination prepared by the applicant's appropriate regulator, containing, in the case of insured depository institution applicants, a composite rating assigned to the institution following the guidelines of the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System, including a CAMELS rating or other similar rating., Regulatory financial report means a financial report that an institution is required to file with its appropriate regulator on a specific periodic basis, including the quarterly call report for commercial banks and savings associations, quarterly or semi-annual call report for credit unions, NAIC's annual or quarterly statement for insurance companies, or other similar report, including such report maintained by the appropriate regulator in an electronic database., Residential mortgage loan means any one of the following types of loans, whether or not fully amortizing:, (1) A home mortgage loan;, (2) A funded residential construction loan;, (3) A loan secured by manufactured housing whether or not defined by State law as secured by an interest in real property;, (4) A loan secured by a junior lien on one-to-four family property or multifamily property;, (5) A security representing:, (i) A right to receive a portion of the cash flows from a pool of loans, provided that, at the time of issuance of the security, all of the loans meet the requirements of one of paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition; or, (ii) An interest in other securities that meet the requirements of paragraph (5)(i) of this definition;, (6) A home mortgage loan secured by a leasehold interest, as defined in paragraph (1)(ii) of the definition of “home mortgage loan,” except that the period of the lease term may be for any duration; or, (7) A loan that finances one or more properties or activities that, if made by a member, would satisfy the statutory requirements for the Community Investment Program established under section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)), or the regulatory requirements established for any Community Investment Cash Advance program., Restricted assets means both permanently restricted assets and temporarily restricted assets, as those terms are used in Financial Accounting Standard No. 117, or any successor publication., Total assets means the total assets reported on a regulatory financial report or, in the case of a CDFI applicant, the total assets contained in the applicant's audited financial statements., Unrestricted cash and cash equivalents means, in the case of a CDFI applicant, cash and highly liquid assets that can be easily converted into cash that are not restricted in a manner that prevents their use in paying expenses, as contained in the applicant's audited financial statements.


(a) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the funds owned by an individual and deposited into one or more accounts with respect to which the owner evidences an intention that upon his or her death the funds shall belong to one or more beneficiaries shall be separately insured (from other types of accounts the owner has at the same insured credit union) in an amount equal to the total number of different beneficiaries named in the account(s) multiplied by the SMSIA. This section applies to all accounts held in connection with informal and formal testamentary revocable trusts. Such informal trusts are commonly referred to as payable-on-death accounts, in-trust-for accounts or Totten Trust accounts, and such formal trusts are commonly referred to as living trusts or family trusts. (<E T="05">Example 1: Account Owner “A” has a living trust account with four different beneficiaries named in the trust. A has no other revocable trust accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. The maximum insurance coverage would be $1,000,000, determined by multiplying 4 times $250,000 (the number of beneficiaries times the SMSIA). (<E T="05">Example 2: Account Owner “A” has a payable-on-death account naming his niece and cousin as beneficiaries, and A also has, at the same NCUA-insured credit union, another payable-on-death account naming the same niece and a friend as beneficiaries. The maximum coverage available to the account owner would be $750,000. This is because the account owner has named only three different beneficiaries in the revocable trust accounts - his niece and cousin in the first, and the same niece and a friend in the second. The naming of the same beneficiary in more than one revocable trust account, whether it be a payable-on-death account or living trust account, does not increase the total coverage amount.) (<E T="05">Example 3: Account Owner “A” establishes a living trust account with a balance of $300,000, naming his two children “B” and “C” as beneficiaries. A also establishes, at the same NCUA-insured credit union, a payable-on-death account, with a balance of $300,000, also naming his children B and C as beneficiaries. The maximum coverage available to A is $500,000, determined by multiplying 2 times $250,000 (the number of different beneficiaries times the SMSIA). A is uninsured in the amount of $100,000. This is because all funds that an owner holds in both living trust accounts and payable-on-death accounts, at the same NCUA-insured credit union and naming the same beneficiaries, are aggregated for insurance purposes and insured to the applicable coverage limits.), (b) Required intention and naming of beneficiaries. The required intention in paragraph (a) of this section that upon the owner's death the funds shall belong to one or more beneficiaries must be manifested in the title of the account or elsewhere in the account records of the credit union using commonly accepted terms such as, but not limited to, in trust for, as trustee for, payable-on-death to, or any acronym therefore, or by listing one or more beneficiaries in the account records of the credit union. In addition, for informal revocable trust accounts, the beneficiaries must be specifically named in the account records of the insured credit union. The settlor of a revocable trust shall be presumed to own the funds deposited into the account., (c) Definition of beneficiary. For purposes of this section, a beneficiary includes a natural person as well as a charitable organization and other non-profit entity recognized as such under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended., (d) Interests of beneficiaries outside the definition of beneficiary in this section. If a beneficiary named in a trust covered by this section does not meet the definition of beneficiary in paragraph (c) of this section, the funds corresponding to that beneficiary shall be treated as the individually owned (single ownership) funds of the owner(s). As such, they shall be aggregated with any other single ownership accounts of such owner(s) and insured up to the SMSIA per owner. (<E T="05">Example: Account Owner “A” establishes a payable-on-death account naming a pet as beneficiary with a balance of $100,000. A also has an individual account at the same NCUA-insured credit union with a balance of $175,000. Because the pet is not a “beneficiary,” the two accounts are aggregated and treated as a single ownership account. As a result, A is insured in the amount of $250,000, but is uninsured for the remaining $25,000.), (e) Revocable trust accounts with aggregate balances exceeding five times the SMSIA and naming more than five different beneficiaries. Notwithstanding the general coverage provisions in paragraph (a) of this section, for funds owned by an individual in one or more revocable trust accounts naming more than five different beneficiaries and whose aggregate balance is more than five times the SMSIA, the maximum revocable trust account coverage for the account owner shall be the greater of either: five times the SMSIA or the aggregate amount of the interests of each different beneficiary named in the trusts, to a limit of the SMSIA per different beneficiary. (<E T="05">Example 1: Account Owner “A” has a living trust with a balance of $1 million and names two friends, “B” and “C” as beneficiaries. At the same NCUA-insured credit union, A establishes a payable-on-death account, with a balance of $1 million naming his two cousins, “D” and “E” as beneficiaries. Coverage is determined under the general coverage provisions in paragraph (a) of this section, and not this paragraph (e). This is because all funds that A holds in both living trust accounts and payable-on-death accounts, at the same NCUA-insured credit union, are aggregated for insurance purposes. Although A's aggregated balance of $2 million is more than five times the SMDIA, A names only four different beneficiaries, and coverage under this paragraph (e) applies only if there are more than five different beneficiaries. A is insured in the amount of $1 million (4 beneficiaries times the SMSIA), and uninsured for the remaining $1 million.) (<E T="05">Example 2: Account Owner “A” has a living trust account with a balance of $1,500,000. Under the terms of the trust, upon A's death, A's three children are each entitled to $125,000, A's friend is entitled to $15,000, and a designated charity is entitled to $175,000. The trust also provides that the remainder of the trust assets shall belong to A's spouse. In this case, because the balance of the account exceeds $1,250,000 (5 times the SMSIA) and there are more than five different beneficiaries named in the trust, the maximum coverage available to A would be the greater of: $1,250,000 or the aggregate of each different beneficiary's interest to a limit of $250,000 per beneficiary. The beneficial interests in the trust for purposes of determining coverage are: $125,000 for each of the children (totaling $375,000), $15,000 for the friend, $175,000 for the charity, and $250,000 for the spouse (because the spouse's $935,000 is subject to the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation). The aggregate beneficial interests total $815,000. Thus, the maximum coverage afforded to the account owner would be $1,250,000, the greater of $1,250,000 or $815,000.), (f) Co-owned revocable trust accounts. (1) Where an account described in paragraph (a) of this section is established by more than one owner, the respective interest of each account owner (which shall be deemed equal) shall be insured separately, per different beneficiary, up to the SMSIA, subject to the limitation imposed in paragraph (e) of this section. (<E T="05">Example 1: A and B, two individuals, establish a payable-on-death account naming their three nieces as beneficiaries. Neither A nor B has any other revocable trust accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. The maximum coverage afforded to A and B would be $1,500,000, determined by multiplying the number of owners (2) times the SMSIA ($250,000) times the number of different beneficiaries (3). In this example, A would be entitled to revocable trust coverage of $750,000 and B would be entitled to revocable trust coverage of $750,000.) (<E T="05">Example 2: A and B, two individuals, establish a payable-on-death account naming their two children, two cousins, and a charity as beneficiaries. The balance in the account is $1,750,000. Neither A nor B has any other revocable trust accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. The maximum coverage would be determined under paragraph (a) of this section by multiplying the number of account owners (2) times the number of different beneficiaries (5) times $250,000, totaling $2,500,000. Because the account balance ($1,750,000) is less than the maximum coverage amount ($2,500,000), the account would be fully insured.) (<E T="05">Example 3: A and B, two individuals, establish a living trust account with a balance of $3.75 million. Under the terms of the trust, upon the death of both A and B, each of their three children is entitled to $600,000, B's cousin is entitled to $380,000, A's friend is entitled to $70,000, and the remaining amount ($1,500,000) goes to a charity. Under paragraph (e) of this section, the maximum coverage, as to each co-owned account owner, would be the greater of $1,250,000 or the aggregate amount (as to each co-owner) of the interest of each different beneficiary named in the trust, to a limit of $250,000 per account owner per beneficiary. The beneficial interests in the trust considered for purposes of determining coverage for account owner A are: $750,000 for the children (each child's interest attributable to A, $300,000, is subject to the $250,000-per-beneficiary limitation), $190,000 for the cousin, $35,000 for the friend, and $250,000 for the charity (the charity's interest attributable to A, $750,000, is subject to the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation). As to A, the aggregate amount of the beneficial interests eligible for deposit insurance coverage totals $1,225,000. Thus, the maximum coverage afforded to account co-owner A would be $1,250,000, which is the greater of $1,250,000 or the aggregate of all the beneficial interests attributable to A (limited to $250,000 per beneficiary), which totaled slightly less at $1,225,000. Because B has equal ownership interest in the trust, the same analysis and coverage determination also would apply to B. Thus, of the total account balance of $3.75 million, $2.5 million would be insured and $1.25 million would be uninsured.), (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1) of this section, where the owners of a co-owned revocable trust account are themselves the sole beneficiaries of the corresponding trust, the account shall be insured as a joint account under section 745.8 and shall not be insured under the provisions of this section. (<E T="05">Example: If A and B establish a payable-on-death account naming themselves as the sole beneficiaries of the account, the account will be insured as a joint account because the account does not satisfy the intent requirement (under paragraph (a) of this section) that the funds in the account belong to the named beneficiaries upon the owners' death. The beneficiaries are in fact the actual owners of the funds during the account owners' lifetimes.), (g) For deposit accounts held in connection with a living trust that provides for a life estate interest for designated beneficiaries, NCUA shall value each such life estate interest as the SMSIA for purposes of determining the insurance coverage available to the account owner under paragraph (e) of this section. (<E T="05">Example: Account Owner “A” has a living trust account with a balance of $1,500,000. Under the terms of the trust, A provides a life estate interest for his spouse. Moreover, A's three children are each entitled to $275,000, A's friend is entitled to $15,000, and a designated charity is entitled to $175,000. The trust also provides that the remainder of the trust assets shall belong to A's granddaughter. In this case, because the balance of the account exceeds $1,250,000 (5 five times the SMSIA) and there are more than five different beneficiaries named in the trust, the maximum coverage available to A would be the greater of: $1,250,000 or the aggregate of each different beneficiary's interest to a limit of $250,000 per beneficiary. The beneficial interests in the trust considered for purposes of determining coverage are: $250,000 for the spouse's life estate, $750,000 for the children (because each child's $275,000 is subject to the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation), $15,000 for the friend, $175,000 for the charity, and $250,000 for the granddaughter (because the granddaughter's $310,000 remainder is limited by the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation). The aggregate beneficial interests total $1,440,000. Thus, the maximum coverage afforded to the account owner would be $1,440,000, the greater of $1,250,000 or $1,440,000.), (h) Revocable trusts that become irrevocable trusts. Notwithstanding the provisions in section 745.9-1 on the insurance coverage of irrevocable trust accounts, if a revocable trust account converts in part or entirely to an irrevocable trust upon the death of one or more of the trust's owners, the trust account shall continue to be insured under the provisions of this section. (<E T="05">Example: Assume A and B have a trust account in connection with a living trust, of which they are joint grantors. If upon the death of either A or B the trust transforms into an irrevocable trust as to the deceased grantor's ownership in the trust, the account will continue to be insured under the provisions of this section.), (i) This section shall apply to all existing and future revocable trust accounts and all existing and future irrevocable trust accounts resulting from formal revocable trust accounts.


The rules and procedures in this part apply to charter revocations of federal credit unions under 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(1)(A), (B), the involuntary liquidation and adjudication of creditor claims in all cases involving federally insured credit unions, the treatment by the Board as conservator or liquidating agent of financial assets transferred in connection with a securitization or participation or of public funds held by a federally insured credit union, and the allowance of prepayment fees to Federal Home Loan Banks under specified conditions. Remaining sections of this part are applicable to all federally insured credit unions. This part does not apply to share insurance claims arising out of the liquidation of a federally insured credit union. Insurance claims are decided pursuant to part 745 of this chapter.