(a) General requirements - (1) Clearing member clients. A FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction., (2) Clearing members. A FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP., (b) Clearing member client FDIC-supervised institutions - (1) Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions. (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section., (ii) A clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions., (2) Trade exposure amount. (i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 324.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed., (ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodology set forth in § 324.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed., (3) Cleared transaction risk weights. (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight of:, (A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the FDIC-supervised institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any loss to the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions., (B) 4 percent, if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met., (ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP under subpart D of this part., (4) Collateral. (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section., (ii) A clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable., (c) Clearing member FDIC-supervised institution - (1) Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions. (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section., (ii) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions., (2) Trade exposure amount. A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:, (i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 324.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed., (ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated under § 324.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed., (3) Cleared transaction risk weights. (i) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP., (ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP according to subpart D of this part., (iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP where the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 324.3(a), and the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the QCCP default., (4) Collateral. (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section., (ii) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable., (d) Default fund contributions - (1) General requirement. A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the FDIC-supervised institution or the FDIC, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP., (2) Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to nonqualifying CCPs. A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the FDIC, based on factors such as size, structure, and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited., (3) Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs. A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, multiplied by 12.5., (4) Capital requirement for default fund contributions to a QCCP. A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's capital requirement for its default fund contribution to a QCCP (K<E T="54">CM) is equal to:, (5) Hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP. Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP, an FDIC-supervised institution must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP under this paragraph (d)(5), unless the FDIC-supervised institution determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP. The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (K<E T="54">CCP), as determined by the FDIC-supervised institution, is equal to:, (6) EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member. (i) The EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member is equal to the sum of the EAD for derivative contracts determined under paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section and the EAD for repo-style transactions determined under paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section., (ii) With respect to any derivative contracts between the QCCP and the clearing member that are cleared transactions and any guarantees that the clearing member has provided to the QCCP with respect to performance of a clearing member client on a derivative contract, the EAD is equal to the exposure amount of the QCCP to the clearing member for all such derivative contracts and guarantees of derivative contracts calculated under SA-CCR in § 324.132(c) (or, with respect to a QCCP located outside the United States, under a substantially identical methodology in effect in the jurisdiction) using a value of 10 business days for purposes of § 324.132(c)(9)(iv); less the value of all collateral held by the QCCP posted by the clearing member or a client of the clearing member in connection with a derivative contract for which the clearing member has provided a guarantee to the QCCP and the amount of the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member to the QCCP., (iii) With respect to any repo-style transactions between the QCCP and a clearing member that are cleared transactions, EAD is equal to:, (iv) EAD must be calculated separately for each clearing member's sub-client accounts and sub-house account (i.e., for the clearing member's proprietary activities). If the clearing member's collateral and its client's collateral are held in the same default fund contribution account, then the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the client-related transactions within the account and the EAD of the house-related transactions within the account. For purposes of determining such EADs, the independent collateral of the clearing member and its client must be allocated in proportion to the respective total amount of independent collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP., (v) If any account or sub-account contains both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the derivative contracts within the account and the EAD of the repo-style transactions within the account. If independent collateral is held for an account containing both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, then such collateral must be allocated to the derivative contracts and repo-style transactions in proportion to the respective product specific exposure amounts, calculated, excluding the effects of collateral, according to § 324.132(b) for repo-style transactions and to § 324.132(c)(5) for derivative contracts., (vi) Notwithstanding any other provision of paragraph (d) of this section, with the prior approval of the FDIC, a FDIC-supervised institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP according to § 324.35(d)(3)(ii).


To receive payment of an award of fees and other expenses granted under this part, the applicant must submit a copy of the final decision that grants the award and a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts to the Director, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. FHFA must pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days of receipt of the submission of the copy of the final decision and the certification, unless judicial review of the award has been sought by any party to the proceedings.


(a) Authority. This part is issued by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), and sections 4.3, 5.9, 5.17, and 8.32 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2154, 12 U.S.C. 2243, 12 U.S.C. 2252, and 12 U.S.C. 2279bb-1)., (b) Purpose. Section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require the FCA to establish capital and margin requirements for any System institution, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2001 et seq.) that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This regulation implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statutes' requirements., (c) Scope. This part establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this part with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This part applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the relevant compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this part is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this part., (d) Exemptions - (1) Swaps. The requirements of this part (except for § 624.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:, (i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;, (ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or, (iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations., (2) Security-based swaps. The requirements of this part (except for § 624.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:, (i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or, (ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations., (e) Compliance dates. Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this part on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:, (1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin and § 624.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 624.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty., (3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:, (i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and, (ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and, (iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section., (7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty., (f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this part with respect to that counterparty., (g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status., (2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status., (h) Legacy swaps. Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this subpart for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this subpart if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:, (1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;, (2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended under the following conditions:, (i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;, (ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:, (A) A covered swap entity, or, (B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;, (iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);, (iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;, (v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and, (vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:, (A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or, (B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended., (3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:, (A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);, (B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or, (C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate., (ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement., (iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement., (4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:, (i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or, (ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise., (5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:, (i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or, (ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:, (A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or, (B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.


(a) When the Board receives a perfected request, it will conduct a reasonable search of Board records in its possession on the date the Board's search begins and will review any responsive information it locates., (b) If a request covers documents that were created by, obtained from, or classified by another agency, the Board may refer the request for such documents to that agency for a response and inform the requester promptly of the referral., (c) In responding to a request, the Board will withhold information under this section only if - , (1) The Board reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in § 261.15(a); or, (2) Disclosure is prohibited by law., (d) The Board will take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information., (e) The Board will notify the requester of:, (1) The Board's determination of the request;, (2) The reasons for the determination;, (3) An estimate of the amount of information withheld, if any. An estimate is not required if the amount of information is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;, (4) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the Board's FOIA Public Liaison; and, (5) When an adverse determination is made, the Board will advise the requester in writing of that determination and will further advise the requester of:, (i) The right of the requester to appeal any adverse determination within 90 calendar days after the date of the determination as specified in § 261.14;, (ii) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Board's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services; and, (iii) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the adverse determination., (f) Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited treatment., (g) The Board will normally send responsive, nonexempt documents to the requester by email but may use other means as arranged between the Board and the requester or as determined by the Board. The Board will attempt to provide records in the format requested by the requester.


(a) A Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 217.63. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the Board-regulated institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the Board-regulated institution's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. The Board-regulated institution's management may provide all of the disclosures required by §§ 217.61 through 217.63 in one place on the Board-regulated institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the Board-regulated institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures., (b) A Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the Board-regulated institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart., (c) If a Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 concludes that specific commercial or financial information that it would otherwise be required to disclose under this section would be exempt from disclosure by the Board under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), then the Board-regulated institution is not required to disclose that specific information pursuant to this section, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.


(a) Except as otherwise provided by the Act, public announcement of meetings open to public observation and meetings to be partially or completely closed to public observation pursuant to § 261b.8 of this part will be made at least one week in advance of the meeting. Except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 261b.5 of this part, each such public announcement will state the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and phone number of the official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. , (b) If a majority of the members of the agency determines by a recorded vote that agency business requires that a meeting covered by paragraph (a) of this section be called at a date earlier than that specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the agency will make a public announcement of the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section at the earliest practicable time. , (c) Changes in the subject matter of a publicly announced meeting, or in the determination to open or close a publicly announced meeting or any portion of a publicly announced meeting to public observation, or in the time or place of a publicly announced meeting made in accordance with the procedures specified in § 261b.9 of this part will be publicly announced at the earliest practicable time. , (d) Public announcements required by this section will be posted at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office and may be made available by other means or at other locations as may be desirable. , (e) Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, notice of the time, place and subject matter of a meeting, whether the meeting is open or closed, any change in one of the preceding announcements and the name and telephone number of the official designated by the Board to respond to requests about the meeting, shall also be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.


(a) Authority. This regulation is issued by the National Credit Union Administration to implement the Truth in Savings Act of 1991 (TISA), contained in the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, 12 U.S.C. 3201 et seq., Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236. Information collection requirements in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB No. 3133-0134. , (b) Purpose. The purpose of this part is to enable credit union members and potential members to make informed decisions about accounts at credit unions. This part requires credit unions to provide disclosures so that members and potential members can make meaningful comparisons among credit unions and depository institutions. , (c) Coverage. This part applies to all credit unions whose accounts are either insured by, or eligible to be insured by, the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund, except for any credit union that has been designated as a corporate credit union by the National Credit Union Administration and any credit union that has $2 million or less in assets, after subtracting any nonmember deposits, and is determined to be nonautomated by the National Credit Union Administration. In addition, the advertising rules in § 707.8 apply to any person who advertises an account offered by a credit union, including any person who solicits any amount from any other person for placement in a credit union. , (d) Effect on state laws. State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of the TISA and this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency.


(a) General rules. (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing that: , (i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable; , (ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party; , (iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and , (iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding. , (2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix. , (3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued. , (4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law. , (b) Objections to deposition subpoenas. (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena. , (2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties. , (c) Procedure upon deposition. (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded. , (2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition. , (3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition. , (d) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(3) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.


When used in this part, the term labor organization means any lawful organization of any kind, or any employee representation group, which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with any Federal Reserve Bank concerning grievances, personnel policies and practices, or other matters affecting the working conditions of its employees, but the term shall not include any organization:, (a) Which asserts the right to strike against the government of the United States, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or any Federal Reserve Bank, or to assist or participate in any such strike, or which imposes a duty or obligation to conduct, assist or participate in any such strike; or , (b) Which fails to agree to refrain from seeking or accepting support from any organization which employs coercive tactics affecting any Federal Reserve Bank's operations; or , (c) Which advocates the overthrow of the constitutional form of the government of the United States; or , (d) Which discriminates with regard to the terms or conditions of membership because of race, color, sex, creed, age or national origin.


(a) Responsibilities of the board of directors - (1) Liquidity risk tolerance. The board of directors of a bank holding company that is subject to this subpart must:, (i) Approve the acceptable level of liquidity risk that the bank holding company may assume in connection with its operating strategies (liquidity risk tolerance) at least annually, taking into account the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size; and, (ii) Receive and review at least semi-annually information provided by senior management to determine whether the bank holding company is operating in accordance with its established liquidity risk tolerance., (2) Liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures. The board of directors must approve and periodically review the liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures established by senior management pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section., (b) Responsibilities of the risk committee. The risk committee (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the board of directors) must approve the contingency funding plan described in paragraph (f) of this section at least annually, and must approve any material revisions to the plan prior to the implementation of such revisions., (c) Responsibilities of senior management - (1) Liquidity risk. (i) Senior management of a bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and implement strategies, policies, and procedures designed to effectively manage the risk that the bank holding company's financial condition or safety and soundness would be adversely affected by its inability or the market's perception of its inability to meet its cash and collateral obligations (liquidity risk). The board of directors must approve the strategies, policies, and procedures pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section., (ii) Senior management must oversee the development and implementation of liquidity risk measurement and reporting systems, including those required by this section and § 252.35., (iii) Senior management must determine at least quarterly whether the bank holding company is operating in accordance with such policies and procedures and whether the bank holding company is in compliance with this section and § 252.35 (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition warrant), and establish procedures regarding the preparation of such information., (2) Liquidity risk tolerance. Senior management must report to the board of directors or the risk committee regarding the bank holding company's liquidity risk profile and liquidity risk tolerance at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant)., (3) Business lines or products. (i) Senior management must approve new products and business lines and evaluate the liquidity costs, benefits, and risks of each new business line and each new product that could have a significant effect on the company's liquidity risk profile. The approval is required before the company implements the business line or offers the product. In determining whether to approve the new business line or product, senior management must consider whether the liquidity risk of the new business line or product (under both current and stressed conditions) is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance., (ii) Senior management must review at least annually significant business lines and products to determine whether any line or product creates or has created any unanticipated liquidity risk, and to determine whether the liquidity risk of each strategy or product is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance., (4) Cash-flow projections. Senior management must review the cash-flow projections produced under paragraph (e) of this section at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the bank holding company warrant) to ensure that the liquidity risk is within the established liquidity risk tolerance., (5) Liquidity risk limits. Senior management must establish liquidity risk limits as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section and review the company's compliance with those limits at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant)., (6) Liquidity stress testing. Senior management must:, (i) Approve the liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions required in § 252.35(a) at least quarterly, and whenever the bank holding company materially revises its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies or assumptions;, (ii) Review the liquidity stress testing results produced under § 252.35(a) at least quarterly;, (iii) Review the independent review of the liquidity stress tests under § 252.34(d) periodically; and, (iv) Approve the size and composition of the liquidity buffer established under § 252.35(b) at least quarterly., (d) Independent review function. (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a review function that is independent of management functions that execute funding to evaluate its liquidity risk management., (2) The independent review function must:, (i) Regularly, but no less frequently than annually, review and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the company's liquidity risk-management processes, including its liquidity stress test processes and assumptions;, (ii) Assess whether the company's liquidity risk-management function complies with applicable laws and regulations, and sound business practices; and, (iii) Report material liquidity risk-management issues to the board of directors or the risk committee in writing for corrective action, to the extent permitted by applicable law., (e) Cash-flow projections. (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must produce comprehensive cash-flow projections that project cash flows arising from assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures over, at a minimum, short- and long-term time horizons. The bank holding company must update short-term cash-flow projections daily and must update longer-term cash-flow projections at least monthly., (2) The bank holding company must establish a methodology for making cash-flow projections that results in projections that:, (i) Include cash flows arising from contractual maturities, intercompany transactions, new business, funding renewals, customer options, and other potential events that may impact liquidity;, (ii) Include reasonable assumptions regarding the future behavior of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures;, (iii) Identify and quantify discrete and cumulative cash flow mismatches over these time periods; and, (iv) Include sufficient detail to reflect the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, currency exposure, activities, and size of the bank holding company and include analyses by business line, currency, or legal entity as appropriate., (3) The bank holding company must adequately document its methodology for making cash flow projections and the included assumptions and submit such documentation to the risk committee., (f) Contingency funding plan - (1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a contingency funding plan that sets out the company's strategies for addressing liquidity needs during liquidity stress events. The contingency funding plan must be commensurate with the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and established liquidity risk tolerance. The company must update the contingency funding plan at least annually, and when changes to market and idiosyncratic conditions warrant., (2) Components of the contingency funding plan - (i) Quantitative assessment. The contingency funding plan must:, (A) Identify liquidity stress events that could have a significant impact on the bank holding company's liquidity;, (B) Assess the level and nature of the impact on the bank holding company's liquidity that may occur during identified liquidity stress events;, (C) Identify the circumstances in which the bank holding company would implement its action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, which circumstances must include failure to meet any minimum liquidity requirement imposed by the Board;, (D) Assess available funding sources and needs during the identified liquidity stress events;, (E) Identify alternative funding sources that may be used during the identified liquidity stress events; and, (F) Incorporate information generated by the liquidity stress testing required under § 252.35(a)., (ii) Liquidity event management process. The contingency funding plan must include an event management process that sets out the bank holding company's procedures for managing liquidity during identified liquidity stress events. The liquidity event management process must:, (A) Include an action plan that clearly describes the strategies the company will use to respond to liquidity shortfalls for identified liquidity stress events, including the methods that the company will use to access alternative funding sources;, (B) Identify a liquidity stress event management team that would execute the action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;, (C) Specify the process, responsibilities, and triggers for invoking the contingency funding plan, describe the decision-making process during the identified liquidity stress events, and describe the process for executing contingency measures identified in the action plan; and, (D) Provide a mechanism that ensures effective reporting and communication within the bank holding company and with outside parties, including the Board and other relevant supervisors, counterparties, and other stakeholders., (iii) Monitoring. The contingency funding plan must include procedures for monitoring emerging liquidity stress events. The procedures must identify early warning indicators that are tailored to the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size., (iv) Testing. The bank holding company must periodically test:, (A) The components of the contingency funding plan to assess the plan's reliability during liquidity stress events;, (B) The operational elements of the contingency funding plan, including operational simulations to test communications, coordination, and decision-making by relevant management; and, (C) The methods the bank holding company will use to access alternative funding sources to determine whether these funding sources will be readily available when needed., (g) Liquidity risk limits - (1) General. A bank holding company must monitor sources of liquidity risk and establish limits on liquidity risk that are consistent with the company's established liquidity risk tolerance and that reflect the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size., (2) Liquidity risk limits established by a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or Category III bank holding company. If the bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or Category III bank holding company, liquidity risk limits established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must include limits on:, (i) Concentrations in sources of funding by instrument type, single counterparty, counterparty type, secured and unsecured funding, and as applicable, other forms of liquidity risk;, (ii) The amount of liabilities that mature within various time horizons; and, (iii) Off-balance sheet exposures and other exposures that could create funding needs during liquidity stress events., (h) Collateral, legal entity, and intraday liquidity risk monitoring. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring liquidity risk as set forth in this paragraph., (1) Collateral. The bank holding company must establish and maintain policies and procedures to monitor assets that have been, or are available to be, pledged as collateral in connection with transactions to which it or its affiliates are counterparties. These policies and procedures must provide that the bank holding company:, (i) Calculates all of its collateral positions according to the frequency specified in paragraph (h)(1)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, or as directed by the Board, specifying the value of pledged assets relative to the amount of security required under the relevant contracts and the value of unencumbered assets available to be pledged;, (A) If the bank holding company is not a Category IV bank holding company, on at least a weekly basis; or, (B) If the bank holding company is a Category IV bank holding company, on at least a monthly basis;, (ii) Monitors the levels of unencumbered assets available to be pledged by legal entity, jurisdiction, and currency exposure;, (iii) Monitors shifts in the bank holding company's funding patterns, such as shifts between intraday, overnight, and term pledging of collateral; and, (iv) Tracks operational and timing requirements associated with accessing collateral at its physical location (for example, the custodian or securities settlement system that holds the collateral)., (2) Legal entities, currencies, and business lines. The bank holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and controlling liquidity risk exposures and funding needs within and across significant legal entities, currencies, and business lines, taking into account legal and regulatory restrictions on the transfer of liquidity between legal entities., (3) Intraday exposures. The bank holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring intraday liquidity risk exposures that are consistent with the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size. If the bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or a Category III bank holding company, these procedures must address how the management of the bank holding company will:, (i) Monitor and measure expected daily gross liquidity inflows and outflows;, (ii) Manage and transfer collateral to obtain intraday credit;, (iii) Identify and prioritize time-specific obligations so that the bank holding company can meet these obligations as expected and settle less critical obligations as soon as possible;, (iv) Manage the issuance of credit to customers where necessary; and, (v) Consider the amounts of collateral and liquidity needed to meet payment systems obligations when assessing the bank holding company's overall liquidity needs.


Notwithstanding any other section of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution may exclude exposures acquired pursuant to a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, announced by the Federal Reserve on March 18, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable., For the purpose of this provision, an FDIC-supervised institution's liability under the facility must be reduced by the purchase price of the assets acquired with funds advanced from the facility.


Each Farm Credit bank and association must establish and maintain a compensation committee by adopting a written charter describing the committee's composition, authorities, and responsibilities in accordance with this section. The compensation committee must report only to the board of directors. All compensation committees are required to maintain records of meetings, including attendance, for at least 3 fiscal years., (a) Composition. Each compensation committee must consist of at least three members and all committee members must be members of the institution's board of directors. Every member must be free from any relationship that, in the opinion of the board, would interfere with the exercise of independent judgment as a committee member., (b) Responsibilities. It is the responsibility of each compensation committee to review the compensation policies and plans for senior officers and employees and to approve the overall compensation program for senior officers. In fulfilling its responsibilities, the compensation committee must document that it determined the:, (1) Institution's projected long-term compensation and retirement benefit obligations are appropriate to the services performed and not excessive;, (2) Incentive-based compensation programs and payments are reasonable and proportionate to the services performed and structured so the payout schedule considers the potential for future losses or undue risks to the institution;, (3) Senior officer compensation, incentive, and benefit programs support the institution's long-term business strategy and mission, as well as promote safe and sound business practices; and, (4) Compensation programs designed for specific groups of employees, other than senior officers, pose no imprudent risks to the institution., (c) Resources. Each institution must provide monetary and nonmonetary resources to enable its compensation committee to perform its duties.


The respective rights of the Class A and Class B stockholders, in the event that the Bank is liquidated, merged, or otherwise consolidated with another Bank, shall be determined in accordance with the capital plan of the Bank, provided, however, that nothing in the capital plan shall be construed to limit any rights or authority granted FHFA under the Bank Act or the Safety and Soundness Act to issue any regulation or order or to take any other action that may affect or otherwise alter the rights or privileges of stock holders in a liquidation, merger, or consolidation of a Bank.


(a) The General Counsel and persons acting on his or her behalf and at his or her direction may conduct such investigations into the affairs of any insured credit union or institution-affiliated parties as deemed appropriate to determine whether such credit union or party has violated, is violating or is about to violate any provision of the Act, the NCUA Board's regulations or other relevant statutes or regulations that may bear on a party's fitness to participate in the affairs of a credit union. The General Counsel and persons acting on his or her behalf may investigate whether any party is unfit to participate in the affairs of a credit union, whether formal enforcement proceedings are warranted, or such other matters as the General Counsel or his or her designee, in his or her discretion, shall deem appropriate. Such investigations may be conducted either informally or formally., (b) Formal investigations involve the exercise of the NCUA Board's subpoena power and are referred to here as formal investigative proceedings. In formal investigative proceedings, the General Counsel and those to whom he or she delegates authority to act on his or her behalf and at his or her direction have augmented investigatory powers and need not rely on the powers available to them in informal investigations, and they may gather evidence through the issuance of subpoenas compelling the production of documents or testimony as well. In informal investigations evidence may be gathered ordinarily through the use of investigatory procedures or credit union examinations and through voluntary statements and submissions., (c) The NCUA Board has delegated authority to the General Counsel, or designee thereof, to institute formal investigative proceedings by the entry of an order indicating the purpose of the investigation and the designation of persons to conduct that investigation on his or her behalf and at his or her direction. This delegation also extends to the NCUA Board's role as liquidator and conservator of insured credit unions. The power to issue a subpoena may not be delegated outside the agency. The General Counsel may amend such order as he deems appropriate.


(a) Regulatory capital components. A System institution's regulatory capital components are:, (1) CET1 capital;, (2) AT1 capital; and, (3) Tier 2 capital., (b) CET1 capital. CET1 capital is the sum of the CET1 capital elements in paragraph (b) of this section, minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 628.22. The CET1 capital elements are:, (1) Any common cooperative equity instrument issued by a System institution that meets all of the following criteria:, (i) The instrument is paid-in, issued directly by the System institution, and represents the most subordinated claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;, (ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the System institution after all senior claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;, (iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can be redeemed only at the discretion of the System institution and with the prior approval of FCA, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;, (iv) The System institution did not create, through any action or communication, an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, redeem, or revolve the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation, except that the establishment of a revolvement period of 7 years or more, or the practice of redeeming or revolving the instrument no less than 7 years after issuance or allocation, will not be considered to create such an expectation;, (v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income or unallocated retained earnings, and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument;, (vi) The System institution has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the System institution;, (vii) Dividend payments and other distributions related to the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the System institution have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;, (viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur before any losses are borne by holders of preferred stock claims on the System institution and holders of any other claims with priority over common cooperative equity instruments in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;, (ix) The instrument is classified as equity under GAAP;, (x) The System institution, or an entity that the System institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument, except that where there is an obligation for a member of the institution to hold an instrument in order to receive a loan or service from the System institution, an amount of that loan equal to no more than $1,000 of the borrower stock requirement under section 4.3A of the Act will not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:, (A) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan; and, (B) The purchase or acquisition of one or more member equities of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution;, (xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;, (xii) The instrument is issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations and with the institution's capitalization bylaws;, (xiii) The instrument is reported on the System institution's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments; and, (xiv) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 628.21, provides that the institution:, (A) Establishes a minimum redemption or revolvement period of 7 years for equities included in CET1; and, (B) Shall not redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in CET1 without prior approval of the FCA under paragraph (f) of this section, except that the statutory borrower stock described in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section, not to exceed $1,000, may be redeemed without a minimum period outstanding after issuance and without the prior approval of the FCA, as long as after the redemption, the System institution continues to comply with all minimum regulatory capital requirements., (2) Unallocated retained earnings., (3) Paid-in capital resulting from a merger of System institutions or repurchase of third-party capital., (4)-(5) Reserved, (c) AT1 capital. AT1 capital is the sum of additional tier 1 capital elements and related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in §§ 628.22 and 628.23. AT1 capital elements are:, (1) Instruments and related surplus, other than common cooperative equities, that meet the following criteria:, (i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;, (ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors and subordinated debt holders of the System institution in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;, (iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;, (iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;, (v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in AT1 capital, or a tax event. In addition:, (A) The System institution must receive prior approval from FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument., (B) The System institution does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised., (C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c),3<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of FCA that following redemption, the System institution will continue to hold capital commensurate with its risk;, 3 Replacement can be concurrent with redemption of existing AT1 capital instruments., (vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from FCA;, (vii) The System institution has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the System institution except in relation to any distributions to holders of common cooperative equity instruments or other instruments that are pari passu with the instrument;, (viii) Any distributions on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income, unallocated retained earnings, or surplus related to other AT1 capital instruments;, (ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;, (x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;, (xi) The System institution did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;, (xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the System institution, such as provisions that require the System institution to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified timeframe; and, (xiii) Reserved, (xiv) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 628.21, provides that the institution:, (A) Establishes a minimum redemption or no-call period of 5 years for equities included in additional tier 1; and, (B) Shall not redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in additional tier 1 capital without prior approval of the FCA under paragraph (f) of this section., (2)-(3) Reserved, (4) Notwithstanding the criteria for AT1 capital instruments referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:, (i) Reserved, (ii) An instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a System institution's core surplus capital prior to January 1, 2017, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this § 628.20(c)., (d) Tier 2 Capital. Tier 2 capital is the sum of tier 2 capital elements and any related surplus minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in §§ 628.22 and 628.23. Tier 2 capital elements are:, (1) Instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:, (i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;, (ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors of the System institution;, (iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;, (iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least 5 years. At the beginning of each of the last 5 years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than 1 year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the System institution to redeem the instrument prior to maturity; 4<FTREF/>, 4 An instrument that by its terms automatically converts into a tier 1 capital instrument prior to five years after issuance complies with the five-year maturity requirement of this criterion., (v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, or a tax event. In addition:, (A) The System institution must receive the prior approval of FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument., (B) The System institution does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised., (C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either: replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section; 5<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of FCA that following redemption, the System institution would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk;, 5 A System institution may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments., (vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal, dividends, or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;, (vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;, (viii) The System institution has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument, except that where common cooperative equity instruments are held by a member of the institution in connection with a loan, and the institution funds the acquisition of such instruments, that loan shall not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:, (A) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan;, (B) The purchase or acquisition of one or more capital instruments of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution; and, (C) The capital instruments are in excess of $1,000., (ix) Reserved, (x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase is at the discretion of the System institution and requires the prior approval of the FCA;, (xi) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 628.21, provides that the institution:, (A) Establishes a minimum call, redemption or revolvement period of 5 years for equities included in tier 2 capital; and, (B) Shall not call, redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in tier 2 capital without prior approval of the FCA under paragraph (f) of this section., (2) Reserved, (3) ALL up to 1.25 percent of the System institution's total risk-weighted assets not including any amount of the ALL., (4)-(6) Reserved, (e) FCA approval of a capital element. (1) A System institution must receive FCA prior approval to include a capital element (as listed in this section) in its CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital unless the element is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a regulatory capital element FCA determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section., (i)-(ii) Reserved, (2) Reserved, (3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in a System institution's CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital, FCA will make its decision publicly available., (f) FCA prior approval of capital redemptions and dividends included in tier 1 and tier 2 capital. (1) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (f)(5) and (6) of this section, a System institution must obtain the prior approval of the FCA before paying cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, or redeeming equities included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital, other than term equities redeemed on their maturity date., (2) At least 30 days prior to the intended action, the System institution must submit a request for approval to the FCA. The FCA's 30-day review period begins on the date on which the FCA receives the request., (3) The request is deemed to be granted if the FCA does not notify the System institution to the contrary before the end of the 30-day review period., (4)(i) A System institution may request advance approval to cover several anticipated cash dividend or patronage payments, or equity redemptions, provided that the institution projects sufficient current net income during those periods to support the amount of the cash dividend or patronage payments and equity redemptions. In determining whether to grant advance approval, the FCA will consider:, (A) The reasonableness of the institution's request, including its historical and projected cash dividend and patronage payments and equity redemptions;, (B) The institution's historical trends and current projections for capital growth through earnings retention;, (C) The overall condition of the institution, with particular emphasis on current and projected capital adequacy as described in § 628.10(e); and, (D) Any other information that the FCA deems pertinent to reviewing the institution's request., (ii) After considering these standards, the FCA may grant advance prior approval of an institution's request to pay cash dividends and patronage or to redeem or revolve equity. Notwithstanding any such approval, an institution may not declare a dividend or patronage payment or redeem or revolve equities if, after such declaration, redemption, or revolvement, the institution would not meet its regulatory capital requirements set forth in this part and part 615 of this chapter., (5) Subject to any capital distribution restrictions specified in § 628.11, a System institution is deemed to have FCA prior approval for revolvements and redemptions of common cooperative equities, for cash dividend payments on all equities, and for cash patronage payments on all cooperative equities, provided that:, (i) For redemptions or revolvements of common cooperative equities included in CET1 capital or tier 2 capital, other than as provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, the institution issued or allocated such equities at least 7 years ago for CET1 capital and at least 5 years ago for tier 2 capital;, (ii) After such cash payments have been declared and defined by resolution of the board, the dollar amount of the System institution's CET1 capital at quarter-end equals or exceeds the dollar amount of CET1 capital on the same quarter-end in the previous calendar year; and, (iii) The System institution continues to comply with all regulatory capital requirements and supervisory or enforcement actions., (6) The following equities are eligible to be redeemed or revolved under paragraph (f)(5)(i) of this section in less than the applicable minimum required holding period (7 years for CET1 inclusion and 5 years for tier 2 inclusion), provided that the requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section are met:, (i) Equities mandated to be redeemed or retired by a final order of a court of competent jurisdiction;, (ii) Equities held by the estate of a deceased former borrower; and, (iii) Equities that the institution is required to cancel under § 615.5290 of this chapter in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.


This subpart sets forth the circumstances under which an FDIC-supervised institution must notify the FDIC of a change in any member of its board of directors or any senior executive officer and the procedures for filing such notice. This subpart implements section 32 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831i).


(a) The NCUA Board may exempt FISCUs in a given state from compliance with any or all of § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3) if the NCUA Board determines the laws in that state are equal to, or more stringent than, § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3), and the laws and procedures available to the supervisory authority in that state are sufficient to provide NCUA with the degree of access and information it believes is necessary to evaluate the safety and soundness of FICUs having business relationships with CUSOs owned by FISCUs in that state., (b) To obtain an exemption, the state supervisory authority must submit a copy of the legal authority pursuant to which it secures the information required in § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3) of this part to NCUA's regional office having responsibility for that state, along with all procedural and operational documentation supporting and describing the actual practices by which it implements and exercises the authority., (c) The state supervisory authority must provide the regional director with an assurance that NCUA examiners will be provided with co-extensive authority and will be allowed direct access to CUSO books and records at such times as NCUA, in its sole discretion, may determine necessary or appropriate. For purposes of this section, access includes the right to make and retain copies of any CUSO record, as to which NCUA will accord the same level of control and confidentiality that it uses with respect to all other examination-related materials it obtains in the course of its duties., (d) The state supervisory authority must also provide the regional director with an assurance that NCUA, upon request, will have access to copies of any financial statements or reports which a CUSO has provided to the state supervisory authority., (e) The regional director will review the applicable authority, procedures and assurances and forward the exemption request, along with the regional director's recommendation, to the NCUA Board for a final determination., (f) For purposes of this section, whether an entity is a CUSO shall be determined in accordance with the definition set out in § 741.222 of this chapter.


(a) Regular and Agent members, or in the case of an Agent group, the Agent group representative, shall sign the repayment, security and credit reporting agreements prescribed by the Facility, and all Facility advances to Regular and Agent members shall be governed by the terms and conditions of such agreements., (b) All Agent loans shall be made subject to the repayment, security and credit reporting terms prescribed by the Facility for Agent loans., (c) Other terms and conditions applicable to Facility advances and Agent loans will be specified in confirmations of credit provided in connection with such advances and loans, and/or in operating circulars of the Facility.


In determining whether a dwelling unit is affordable where income information (and family size, for rental units) is known to the Enterprise, the affordability of the unit shall be determined as follows:, (a) Moderate-income means:, (1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 100 percent of area median income; and, (2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:,
*100% plus (8% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4)., (b) Low-income (80%) means:, (1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 80 percent of area median income; and, (2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:,
*80% plus (6.4% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4)., (c) Low-income (60%) means:, (1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 60 percent of area median income; and, (2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:,
*60% plus (4.8% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4)., (d) Very low-income means:, (1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 50 percent of area median income; and, (2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:,
*50% plus (4.0% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4)., (e) Extremely low-income means:, (1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 30 percent of area median income; and, (2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:,
*30% plus (2.4% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4).


Upon its own initiative or upon written request by any party, the Board, in its discretion, may order the matter to be set down for oral argument before the Board or one or more members thereof. Any request for oral argument by a party filing exceptions shall be made within the time prescribed for filing such exceptions, or by any other party, within the time prescribed for the filing of a reply brief. Oral argument before the Board shall be recorded unless otherwise ordered by the Board.


(a) Review of resolution plans. The Board and Corporation will seek to coordinate their activities concerning the review of resolution plans, including planning for, reviewing, and assessing the resolution plans, as well as such activities that occur during the periods between resolution plan submissions., (b) Joint determination regarding deficient resolution plans. If the Board and Corporation jointly determine that the resolution plan of a covered company submitted under § 381.4 is not credible or would not facilitate an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code, the Board and Corporation shall jointly notify the covered company in writing of such determination. Any joint notice provided under this paragraph (b) shall be provided pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section and shall identify the deficiencies identified by the Board and Corporation in the resolution plan. A deficiency is an aspect of a covered company's resolution plan that the Board and Corporation jointly determine presents a weakness that individually or in conjunction with other aspects could undermine the feasibility of the covered company's resolution plan., (c) Resubmission of a resolution plan. Within 90 days of receiving a notice of deficiencies issued pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or such shorter or longer period as the Board and Corporation may jointly determine, a covered company shall submit a revised resolution plan to the Board and Corporation that addresses the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and Corporation, and that discusses in detail:, (1) The revisions made by the covered company to address the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation;, (2) Any changes to the covered company's business operations and corporate structure that the covered company proposes to undertake to facilitate implementation of the revised resolution plan (including a timeline for the execution of such planned changes); and, (3) Why the covered company believes that the revised resolution plan is credible and would result in an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code., (d) Extensions of time. Upon their own initiative or a written request by a covered company, the Board and Corporation may jointly extend any time period under this section. Each extension request shall be supported by a written statement of the covered company describing the basis and justification for the request., (e) Joint determination regarding shortcomings in resolution plans. The Board and Corporation may also jointly identify one or more shortcomings in a covered company's resolution plan. A shortcoming is a weakness or gap that raises questions about the feasibility of a covered company's resolution plan, but does not rise to the level of a deficiency for both the Board and Corporation. If a shortcoming is not satisfactorily explained or addressed before or in the submission of the covered company's next resolution plan, it may be found to be a deficiency in the covered company's next resolution plan. The Board and the Corporation may identify an aspect of a covered company's resolution plan as a deficiency even if such aspect was not identified as a shortcoming in an earlier resolution plan submission., (f) Feedback. Following their review of a resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation will jointly send a notification to each covered company that identifies any deficiencies or shortcomings in the covered company's resolution plan (or confirms that no deficiencies or shortcomings were identified) and provides any feedback on the resolution plan. The Board and the Corporation will jointly send the notification no later than 12 months after the later of the date on which the covered company submitted the resolution plan and the date by which the covered company was required to submit the resolution plan, unless the Board and the Corporation jointly determine in their discretion that extenuating circumstances exist that require delay.


(a) An association that proposes to amend its charter must submit a request to its funding bank containing the following information:, (1) A statement of the provision(s) of the charter that the association proposes to amend and the proposed amendment(s);, (2) A statement of the reasons for the proposed amendment(s), the impact of the amendment(s) on the association and its stockholders, and the requested effective date of the amendment(s);, (3) A certified copy of the resolution of the board of directors of the association approving the amendment(s);, (4) Any additional information or documents that the association wishes to submit in support of the request or that may be requested by the funding bank., (b) Upon receipt of a proposed amendment from an association, the funding bank must review the materials submitted and provide the association with its analysis of the proposal within a reasonable period of time. Concurrently, the funding bank must communicate its recommendation on the proposal to the FCA, including the reasons for the recommendation, and any analysis the bank believes appropriate. Following review by the bank, the association must transmit the proposed amendment with attachments to the FCA., (c) Upon receipt of an association's request for a charter amendment, the FCA will review the materials submitted and either approve or disapprove the request. The FCA may require submission of any supplemental information and analysis it deems appropriate., (d) The FCA will notify the association of its approval or disapproval of the amendment request, including a copy of the amended charter with the approval notification, and provide a copy of such communication to the funding bank.