1: Title
This Act is the Education (Pastoral Care) Amendment Act 2019.
2: Commencement
This Act comes into force on the day after the date of Royal assent.
3: Principal Act
This Act amends the Education Act 1989 principal Act 2019-12-20 Education Act 1989
4: Part 18A replaced
Replace Part 18A
18A: Pastoral care of students
238D: Interpretation
In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,— code section 238G code administrator section 238H(1) domestic tertiary student
a: who is—
i: a New Zealand citizen; or
ii: the holder of a residence class visa granted under the Immigration Act 2009 section 2(4)
iii: a person of a class or description of persons required by the Minister, by notice in the Gazette
b: who is a tertiary student enrolled at an institution or a registered establishment DRS operator section 238M(4)(a) DRS rules section 238P international student provider
a: in respect of international students, a registered school, an institution, or a registered establishment; or
b: in respect of domestic tertiary students, an institution or a registered establishment serious harm signatory provider section 238G(1)(b) or (c) student accommodation section 5B of the Residential Tenancies Act 198 student claimant
a: is a domestic tertiary student or an international student enrolled by the provider or signatory provider; or
b: is a former domestic tertiary student or international student enrolled by the provider or signatory provider; or
c: intends to be, or is in the process of being, enrolled by the provider or signatory provider as a domestic tertiary student or an international student student contract dispute resolution scheme DRS section 238M Enrolment of international students
238E: Signatory providers may enrol persons as international students
1: A provider may enrol a person as an international student or continue to have an international student enrolled, as long as the provider is a signatory provider.
2: A provider may not enrol a person as an international student or continue to have an international student enrolled, or provide educational instruction for the person, if the provider—
a: is not a signatory provider; or
b: is removed as a signatory provider under section 238L
c: ceases to be a signatory provider for any other reason provided in the code.
3: A provider or signatory provider that is subject to a sanction under section 238L(1)
238F: Providers must enrol persons as international students in certain circumstances
A provider must enrol a person as an international student if the person is not a domestic student and the provider—
a: provides the person with educational instruction for more than 2 weeks; or
b: accepts tuition fees from the person. Pastoral care of domestic and international students
238G: Pastoral care codes of practice
1: The Minister may issue—
a: a code that provides a framework for the pastoral care of domestic tertiary students:
b: a code that provides a framework for the pastoral care of international students:
c: a code that provides a framework for the pastoral care of domestic tertiary students and international students.
2: The purpose of a code—
a: in respect of domestic tertiary students is to support the Government’s objectives for the education of domestic tertiary students by—
i: requiring providers to take all reasonable steps to maintain the well-being of domestic tertiary students; and
ii: ensuring, so far as is possible, that domestic tertiary students have a positive experience that supports their educational achievement:
b: in respect of international students is to support the Government’s objectives for international education by—
i: requiring providers to take all reasonable steps to protect international students; and
ii: ensuring, so far as is possible, that international students have in New Zealand a positive experience that supports their educational achievement.
3: The scope of a code—
a: in respect of domestic tertiary students is to prescribe, alongside other quality assurance prescribed by this Act,—
i: outcomes sought from providers for their domestic tertiary students; and
ii: key processes required of providers to support the well-being, achievement, and rights of domestic tertiary students:
b: in respect of international students is to prescribe, alongside other quality assurance prescribed by this Act,—
i: outcomes sought from providers for their international students; and
ii: key processes required of providers to support the well-being, achievement, and rights of international students.
4: Without limiting subsections (1) to (3), a code may include provisions for 1 or more of the following purposes:
a: despite anything in the Public Finance Act 1989
b: providing for any other matters contemplated by this Part, necessary for its administration, or necessary for giving it full effect.
5: Before issuing a code, the Minister must consult—
a: those parties that the Minister considers likely to be affected by the code, including representatives of students, parents, providers, signatory providers, and the staff of providers and signatory providers; and
b: the Privacy Commissioner.
6: A code—
a: in respect of domestic tertiary students is binding on all providers:
b: in respect of international students is binding on all signatory providers.
7: A code—
a: may make different provisions in relation to students under the age of 18 years and in relation to students aged 18 years or over:
b: must be published on an Internet site maintained by or on behalf of the Ministry:
c: is a disallowable instrument, but is not a legislative instrument, for the purposes of the Legislation Act 2012 section 41 2015 No 70 s 191(4)
238H: Code administrators
1: The Minister may, by notice in the Gazette
a: administering—
i: the code for domestic tertiary students:
ii: the code for international students:
iii: the code for domestic tertiary students and international students; and
b: administering 2 or more of the codes.
2: When appointing a code administrator, the Minister must have regard to the knowledge, skills, or experience of the person or agency.
3: The functions of the code administrator are,—
a: in the case of international students,—
i: to receive applications from providers seeking to become signatory providers; and
ii: to assess those applications against—
A: the criteria stated in a code; and
B: the purpose stated in section 238G(2)
iii: to allow or decline to allow applicants to become signatory providers in accordance with those assessments; and
b: in the case of domestic tertiary students and international students,—
i: to monitor and investigate the extent to which providers comply with a code—
A: following a process prescribed by a code; and
B: in close collaboration with education quality assurance authorities; and
ii: to issue to providers notices under section 238I or 238J
iii: to impose on providers sanctions for breaches of a code and failure to comply with notices under section 238I or 238J
4: A code administrator may allow an applicant to become a signatory provider unconditionally, or subject to any written conditions made known to the applicant at the time the code administrator informs the applicant that the applicant is allowed to become a signatory provider.
5: A code administrator may, in accordance with the requirements of the applicable code,—
a: enter any student accommodation and inspect the premises and facilities:
b: inspect, and make and remove copies of, any information relating to the management of the student accommodation:
c: ask any person at any student accommodation to make or provide statements, in whatever form or manner is reasonable in the circumstances, about any matter relating to the safety of students who board at the student accommodation.
6: A code administrator may exercise the powers in subsection (5) only for the purposes of monitoring or investigating compliance with the relevant code.
7: A code administrator may not enter or inspect the room or sleeping area of a student accommodated at any student accommodation unless—
a: the code administrator believes on reasonable grounds that the entry or inspection is necessary for the purposes specified in subsection (6); and
b: the code administrator gives the student at least 24 hours’ written notice of the intended entry or inspection that explains the purpose of the entry or inspection; and
c: the student consents to the entry or inspection, and the student is present during the entry or inspection if being present is a condition of the consent.
8: Subsection (7)(c) does not apply if obtaining the student’s consent is unreasonable in the circumstances.
9: A code administrator may, with the Minister’s prior written approval and subject to any conditions that the code administrator or the Minister thinks fit, delegate any or all of the functions, duties, and powers specified in this section to another person or agency (having regard to their knowledge, skills, or experience). Compliance
238I: Quality improvement notices
1: A code administrator may issue a quality improvement notice to a provider that requires the provider to do, or refrain from doing, a particular thing in relation to the provider’s obligations under a code.
2: The notice must—
a: set out any concerns the administrator has about the provider’s systems, practices, training, or procedures; and
b: specify the time within which the provider is expected to address the administrator’s concerns (which must be a reasonable time, having regard to the nature and complexity of the action required); and
c: specify the possible consequences of a failure to comply with a quality improvement notice.
3: The code administrator may publish the notice, or a summary of it, in a manner designed to give public notice of it.
4: The code administrator may, before the expiry of the time or period referred to in subsection (2)(b), extend the time or period, and in that case the time or period as extended becomes the time or period within or during which the notice must be complied with. 1992 No 55 s 11C
238J: Compliance notices
1: A code administrator may issue a compliance notice to a signatory provider that requires the signatory provider to do, or refrain from doing, a particular thing in relation to—
a: the signatory provider’s obligations as a signatory to a code; or
b: the signatory provider’s conditions of approval as a signatory to a code.
2: A notice under subsection (1) may specify the manner in which a thing must be done or the manner in which the consequences of a thing must be rectified.
3: The notice must be in writing and must—
a: state the date on which it is issued; and
b: if it requires the signatory provider to take any action, state a time on or before which, or a period within which, the signatory provider must take the action; and
c: state the consequences or possible consequences of non-compliance with the notice.
4: The code administrator may publish the notice, or a summary of it, in a manner designed to give public notice of it.
5: The code administrator may, before the expiry of the time or period referred to in subsection (3)(b), extend the time or period, and in that case the time or period as extended becomes the time or period within or during which the notice must be complied with.
238K: Providers and signatory providers to comply with notices
1: A provider must comply with a quality improvement notice issued under section 238I
2: A signatory provider must comply with a compliance notice issued under section 238J
3: If, in a code administrator's opinion, a provider or signatory provider does not comply with the relevant notice, the code administrator may (as the code administrator sees fit) impose sanctions against the provider or signatory provider under section 238L
4: The code administrator may not act under subsection (3) until the later of the following:
a: 10 working days after the date on which the quality improvement notice or compliance notice was issued:
b: the expiry of any time or period of a kind referred to in section 238I(2)(b) or 238J(3)(b)
5: This section and sections 238I and 238J section 238L
238L: Sanctions for breach of code
1: If satisfied that a provider or signatory provider has breached the relevant code or failed to comply with a notice under section 238I or 238J
a: in the case of signatory providers, impose new, or amend or revoke any existing, conditions on the signatory provider’s approval as a signatory provider:
b: in the case of providers and signatory providers, impose limitations on the provider’s or the signatory provider’s power to enrol students.
2: If satisfied that a signatory provider has not complied with a sanction imposed under subsection (1) or a notice under section 238I or 238J Dispute resolution
238M: Student contract dispute resolution scheme established
1: This section establishes a student contract dispute resolution scheme (the DRS
2: The purpose of the DRS is to resolve contractual and financial disputes between students (and former and prospective students) and providers or signatory providers.
3: Every provider or signatory provider that enrols, intends to enrol, or has enrolled students is subject to and must (in relation to any contractual or financial dispute with a student or a former or prospective student) comply with the rules of the DRS prescribed under section 238P
4: The Minister—
a: may, by notice in the Gazette
b: must take reasonable steps to ensure that there is at all times a person or an agency appointed to be responsible for administering the DRS; and
c: may impose any conditions on the appointment that the Minister thinks fit.
5: A student claimant may lodge with the DRS operator for resolution under the DRS any contractual or financial dispute with a provider or signatory provider, but only if—
a: the provider or signatory provider has been given an opportunity to resolve the dispute, but the student claimant is not satisfied with the process, or outcome, or both; or
b: the provider or signatory provider—
i: has not tried to resolve the dispute; or
ii: has refused to try to do so.
6: However, a student may not lodge a dispute for resolution under subsection (5) later than 7 years after the date of the act or omission on which the dispute is based.
7: The resolution of a dispute is binding on all parties to the dispute if—
a: it is the outcome of an adjudication of the dispute by or on behalf of the DRS operator; or
b: it is produced by a mediation undertaken by or on behalf of the DRS operator whose outcome the parties to the dispute have agreed will be binding.
8: The DRS operator—
a: may charge fees to a student claimant or the provider concerned, or both, according to the rules of the DRS prescribed under section 238P
b: (despite those rules) may in its absolute discretion partially or completely exempt any person, or persons of a particular description, from the payment of fees.
238N: Cap on amount to be paid
In resolving any dispute, the DRS operator—
a: may not require a provider or signatory provider to pay to a student claimant in relation to any particular claim any amount exceeding $200,000; but
b: may charge the provider fees in addition to any amount required to be paid.
238O: District Court to enforce DRS
1: The District Court may,—
a: on the application of a student claimant or the DRS operator, make an order requiring a provider or signatory provider to comply with the rules of the DRS or to give effect to any resolution that is binding under section 238M(7)
b: on the application of the provider or signatory provider or the DRS operator, make an order requiring a student claimant to give effect to any resolution that is binding under section 238M(7)
2: If an order (or part of an order) requiring the provider or signatory provider to comply with the resolution requires the provider or signatory provider to pay any sum of money to any person, that order (or part) may be enforced as if it were a judgment by the District Court for the payment of that sum of money to that person.
3: If the District Court is satisfied that the terms of the resolution of a dispute by the DRS operator are manifestly unreasonable, the court may modify the resolution before giving effect to it.
4: Subsection (3) overrides subsections (1) and (2) and section 238M(7)
238P: Rules of student contract dispute resolution scheme
1: The Governor-General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the Minister, make rules for the functioning and administration of the DRS.
2: Before recommending that an order be made, the Minister must consult any relevant bodies and sector representatives that the Minister thinks appropriate.
3: The rules may prescribe fees, or a means by which fees can be calculated or ascertained. Export education levy
238Q: Export education levy
1: The Governor-General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the Minister, make regulations imposing an export education levy on signatory providers who receive tuition fees from international students enrolled with them.
2: Without limiting subsection (1), regulations made under this section must—
a: prescribe the amount or the method for calculating the amount (or both) of export education levy payable by individual signatory providers, and may prescribe different amounts, or different methods of calculating the amounts, payable by different classes of signatory provider; and
b: prescribe when the levy, or any part of the levy, is payable; and
c: designate an agency to administer the levy and, if that agency is the Ministry, the regulations may authorise the Ministry to delegate all or specified aspects of the levy's collection and use to another body; and
d: require a signatory provider to supply, on request by the agency responsible for the administration of the levy, information about student numbers or any other matter that is necessary to determine or verify the amount of levy payable by the signatory provider.
3: Before recommending that an order be made, the Minister must consult signatory providers.
238R: How export education levy may be applied
1: Export education levy funds may be applied for the following purposes:
a: the development, promotion, and quality assurance of the export education sector, which may include (without limitation)—
i: professional and institutional development; and
ii: marketing; and
iii: implementation of scholarship schemes; and
iv: research, and resource development; and
v: support (financial or otherwise) of other bodies engaged in the development, promotion, or quality assurance of the export education sector:
b: the making of payments as set out in subsections (2) and (3):
c: the administration and audit of the code in respect of international students:
d: the funding of the cost of the operation of the DRS established by section 238M
e: the general administration of the levy and associated purposes.
2: Subsection (3) applies if—
a: an international student is or was enrolled with a private training establishment or a private school for a course of study or training; and
b: at the time of the international student's enrolment, the private training establishment held a current registration under Part 18 section 35A
c: the private training establishment or private school has not, cannot, or will not provide, in whole or in part, the course of study or training.
3: If this subsection applies, the levy funds may be used for any of the following purposes:
a: to make payment to any person to ensure the reimbursement of the student, in whole or in part, for tuition fees or for any payment other than tuition fees made by or on behalf of that student to the private training establishment or private school in respect of the student's course of study or training if, and to the extent that,—
i: the private training establishment or private school has not refunded the tuition fees or other payment; and
ii: the agency responsible for the administration of the levy approves the reimbursement of the student as necessary and appropriate in the circumstances:
b: with the approval of the Minister, to reimburse the Crown for any sum provided by the Crown and paid to any person to ensure the reimbursement of the student, in whole or in part, for tuition fees or for any other payment made by or on behalf of that student to the private training establishment or private school in respect of the student's course of study or training if, and to the extent that,—
i: the private training establishment or private school had not refunded the tuition fees or other payment; and
ii: the agency responsible for the administration of the levy approved the reimbursement of the student as necessary and appropriate in the circumstances:
c: with the approval of the Minister, to reimburse, in whole or in part, the agency responsible for the administration of the levy, or any Crown entity, for—
i: costs incurred by that agency or Crown entity in placing the student with an alternative provider; or
ii: other costs incurred by that agency or Crown entity as a direct result of the private training establishment or private school not providing the course of study or training.
4: Levy funds must be kept in a separate bank account that is used only for the purposes of the levy.
5: As soon as practicable after 1 July in each year, the agency responsible for the administration of the levy must present to the Minister an annual report on the administration of the levy, which must include audited financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting practice, and the Minister must present a copy of the report to the House of Representatives.
6: The amount of levy payable by a provider under regulations made under this section is a debt due to the Crown and may be recovered in any court of competent jurisdiction. Offences and penalties
238S: Offence relating to breach of code resulting in serious harm to or death of students
1: A provider or signatory provider commits an offence if—
a: the provider or signatory provider, without reasonable excuse, breaches the applicable code; and
b: the breach results in serious harm to or the death of 1 or more of its students.
2: A provider who commits an offence against this section is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $100,000.
238T: Pecuniary penalty relating to breach of code
1: On the application of a code administrator, a court may order a provider or signatory provider to pay to the Crown any pecuniary penalty that the court determines to be appropriate if the court is satisfied that the provider or signatory provider has, without reasonable excuse, committed a serious breach of the applicable code.
2: The amount of any pecuniary penalty may not exceed $100,000.
238U: Relationship between offences and penalties
1: Once criminal proceedings against a provider or signatory provider for an offence under section 238S section 238T
2: Once civil proceedings against a provider or signatory provider for a pecuniary penalty under section 238T section 238S
3: Any uncompleted proceedings for an order under this Act that a provider or signatory provider pay a pecuniary penalty must be stayed if criminal proceedings are started or have already been started against the provider or signatory provider for the same act or omission, or substantially the same act or omission, in respect of which the pecuniary penalty order is sought. 1986 No 5 s 79B
5: Schedule 1 amended
In Schedule 1, after Part 8 Schedule


1: Title
This Act is the Terrorism Suppression (Control Orders) Act 2019.
2: Commencement
This Act comes into force on the day after the date of Royal assent.
1: Preliminary provisions
3: Purpose of this Act
The purpose of this Act is to allow requirements to be imposed on a relevant person by a control order for the following purposes: Main purposes
a: to protect the public from terrorism:
b: to prevent engagement in terrorism-related activities in a country: Incidental purposes
c: to support the relevant person’s reintegration into New Zealand or rehabilitation, or both. Criminal Code Act 1995 s 104.1 (Australia)
4: Overview of decisions in making control order
1: A diagrammatic overview of decisions in making a control order is set out in Schedule 2
2: The diagram is intended as a guide only. 2004 No 38 s 3 2006 No 84 s 5 2007 No 97 s AA 2(1) 2008 No 28 s 5 2008 No 38 s 3
5: Interpretation
In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,— accessory after the fact A B Commissioner
a: the Commissioner of Police holding office under section 12
b: an acting Commissioner of Police appointed or deemed to be appointed under section 15 community-based sentence section 44 constable section 4 control order section 12(1) country court determinate sentence of imprisonment
a: suspended pending determination of the appeal; or
b: set aside, and not replaced by a sentence of imprisonment for a fixed term, on the appeal designated terrorist entity section 4(1) disclosable supporting information EM address EM requirement section 17(n) see also section 17A EM requirement for a residential requirement section 17(n)
a: submit to electronic monitoring of compliance with a residential requirement of the control order concerned; and
b: co-operate with, and comply with any lawful direction given by, Police; and
c: not tamper with or damage or do anything to interfere with the functioning of the electronic monitoring equipment; and
d: otherwise comply with their obligations under the EM requirement for the residential requirement ( see section 17A engages in terrorism-related activities section 8(1) foreign country long-term sentence section 4(1) Minister other party
a: does or omits an act for the purpose of aiding any person to commit the terrorism; or
b: abets any person in the commission of the terrorism; or
c: incites, counsels, or procures any person to commit the terrorism overturned section 28A(1) section 6(5) or (6) section 28A(3) to (5) post-detention conditions section 4(1) principal party prison section 3(1) release conditions section 6(5)(b) and (c) section 4(1) relevant occupant
a: if it is a family residence, every person of or over the age of 16 years who ordinarily lives there; and
b: if it is any other residence, every person whom the Commissioner or the chief executive of the Department of Corrections identifies as being a relevant occupant for the purposes of section 16D clause 3 relevant offender section 6(5) or (6) see section 6(1AA) relevant person section 6(1AA) relevant returner section 6(1) see section 6(1AA) requirements residential requirement section 17(j) sentence of home detention section 80A short-term sentence section 4(1) statutory release date section 6(5)(b) and (c) section 4(1) terrorism section 5(1) terrorism-related New Zealand offence section 8A Section 5 community-based sentence inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 determinate sentence of imprisonment inserted 5 October 2021 section 44(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 5 EM address inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 EM requirement inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 EM requirement for a residential requirement inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 overturned inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 post-detention conditions inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 release conditions inserted 5 October 2021 section 44(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 5 relevant occupant inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 relevant offender inserted 5 October 2021 section 44(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 5 relevant offender amended 10 May 2023 section 26(2) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 relevant person amended 5 October 2021 section 44(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 5 relevant returner inserted 5 October 2021 section 44(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 5 residential requirement inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 sentence of home detention inserted 10 May 2023 section 26(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 5 statutory release date inserted 5 October 2021 section 44(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 5 terrorism-related New Zealand offence inserted 5 October 2021 section 44(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021
6: Meaning of relevant person
Definition: relevant returner or relevant offender
1AA: A relevant person
a: a person to whom subsection (1) applies (and who, in this Act, is called, under section 5
b: a person to whom subsection (5) or (6) section 5 Engagement in terrorism-related activities in foreign country
1: This subsection applies to
a: engaged in terrorism-related activities ( see section 8(1)
b: travelled, or attempted to travel, to a foreign country to engage in terrorism-related activities in a foreign country; or
c: was convicted in a foreign country of an offence because of conduct that is or includes engaging in terrorism-related activities in a foreign country; or
d: was deported from, had a visa cancelled by, or had any passport, citizenship, or nationality revoked by, a foreign country for reasons that are or include a security risk related to conduct that is or includes engaging in terrorism-related activities in a foreign country; or
e: is or was the subject of any control order regime, or other analogous supervisory regime, in a foreign country, because of conduct that is or includes engaging in terrorism-related activities in a foreign country.
2: Subsection (1) applies whether or not the person is, or is connected to, a designated terrorist entity because of conduct that is or includes those activities.
3: Subsection (1) (except subsection (1)(c)) applies even if the person has been prosecuted in a foreign country for, but was not convicted in a foreign country of, an offence because of conduct that is or includes those activities or, as the case requires, that is or includes travelling, or attempting to travel, to a foreign country to engage in those activities in a foreign country.
4: Subsection (1) applies even if the person is, or may be, a returning offender, or returning prisoner, who is subject to all or any of the Returning Offenders (Management and Information) Act 2015 Commission of terrorism-related New Zealand offence punished by determinate sentence of imprisonment
5: This subsection applies to a person who is 18 years old or older and—
a: who, on or after 5 October 2021 (which is the commencement date of the Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 see section 8A
b: who was sentenced, on or after that commencement date, for that offence, to a determinate sentence of imprisonment; and
c: whose statutory release date, or whose last day as an offender who is subject to release conditions, for 1 or more sentences of imprisonment that are or include that determinate sentence of imprisonment, is after that commencement date. Commission of terrorism-related New Zealand offence punished by sentence of home detention or community-based sentence
6: This subsection applies to a person who is 18 years old or older and—
a: who, on or after the commencement date of the Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designation and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 see section 8A
b: who was sentenced, on or after that commencement date, for that offence, to a sentence of home detention or a community-based sentence; and
c: whose last day as an offender who is subject to that sentence of home detention (including while subject to post-detention conditions), or that community-based sentence, is after that commencement date. Effect of appeal against conviction or sentence
7: Subsections (5) and (6) apply (subject to section 28A
a: the convicted person or a prosecutor has appealed against the conviction or sentence; and
b: the sentence is suspended, or ceases to run, because of the filing of a notice of appeal or application for leave to appeal. Section 6(1AA) heading inserted 5 October 2021 section 45(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 6(1AA) inserted 5 October 2021 section 45(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 6(1AA)(b) amended 10 May 2023 section 27(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 6(1) heading inserted 5 October 2021 section 45(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 6(1) amended 5 October 2021 section 45(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 6(5) heading inserted 5 October 2021 section 45(3) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 6(5) inserted 5 October 2021 section 45(3) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 6(5)(a) amended 10 May 2023 section 27(2) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 6(6) heading inserted 10 May 2023 section 27(3) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 6(6) inserted 10 May 2023 section 27(3) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 6(7) heading inserted 10 May 2023 section 27(3) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 6(7) inserted 10 May 2023 section 27(3) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
7: Duty to have regard to specified aspects of evidence relied on
1: In determining whether evidence establishes or helps to establish compliance with section 6(1)
a: the source of that evidence; and
b: the validity, authenticity, and reliability of that evidence.
2: The subsection (1) duty also applies in respect of a determination of the validity, authenticity, and reliability of any conviction or other foreign country action at issue in terms of section 6(1)(c), (d), or (e)
3: This section does not limit or affect any other rules of law relating to the admission or use of evidence. Section 7(1) amended 5 October 2021 section 46 Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021
8: Meaning of engagement in terrorism-related activities
Definition
1: A person engages in terrorism-related activities
a: carries out terrorism (whether as a or the principal party, any other party, or an accessory after the fact):
b: facilitates or supports materially the carrying out of terrorism. Carrying out includes preparations, credible threats, and attempts
2: For the purposes of this Act, terrorism is carried out
a: planning or other preparations to carry out the terrorism, whether it is actually carried out or not:
b: a credible threat to carry out the terrorism, whether it is actually carried out or not:
c: an attempt to carry out the terrorism:
d: the carrying out of the terrorism. Facilitation or material support requires some actual or constructive knowledge
3: For the purposes of this Act, terrorism is facilitated or materially supported
a: the facilitator or material supporter knows, or ought reasonably to know, that any specific terrorism is facilitated or materially supported:
b: any specific terrorism was foreseen or planned at the time it was facilitated or materially supported:
c: any terrorism was actually carried out. 1961 No 43 ss 66 70 71 72 312 2002 No 34 s 25
8A: Meaning of terrorism-related New Zealand offence
1: A terrorism-related New Zealand offence
a: an offence against the Terrorism Suppression Act 2002 sections 15 to 18 sections 7 8 8A
b: an offence—
i: against section 124(1) 127(4) 129(3) 131A(1) section 390
ii: that involves a specified objectionable publication.
2: In this section, specified objectionable publication sections 2 3 FVPC Act Publication deemed objectionable under section 3(2) of FVPC Act
a: the publication promotes or supports, or tends to promote or support, acts of torture or the infliction of extreme violence or extreme cruelty (as provided in section 3(2)(f) Publication determined objectionable under section 3(3) of FVPC Act
b: the extent and degree to which, and the manner in which, the publication describes, depicts, or otherwise deals with acts of torture, the infliction of serious physical harm, or acts of significant cruelty (as provided in section 3(3)(a)(i)
c: the extent and degree to which, and the manner in which, the publication promotes or encourages acts of terrorism (as provided in section 3(3)(d) Section 8A inserted 5 October 2021 section 47 Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 8A(1)(b)(ii) replaced 10 May 2023 section 28(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 8A(2) inserted 10 May 2023 section 28(2) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
9: Status of examples
1: An example used in this Act is only illustrative of the provisions to which it relates. It does not limit those provisions.
2: If an example and a provision to which it relates are inconsistent, the provision prevails. 2015 No 70 s 26 2016 No 16 s 6 2017 No 5 s 7 2018 No 32 s 14
10: Transitional, savings, and related provisions
The transitional, savings, and related provisions set out in Schedule 1
11: Act binds the Crown
This Act binds the Crown.
2: Control orders
Making and content
12: Power to make
1: The court may make an order—
a: in respect of a person who the court is satisfied is a relevant person ( see sections 6(1AA) 7 8 8A
b: imposing requirements on the relevant person for the purposes stated in section 3(a) to (c)
2: The court may make a control order only if satisfied that—
a: the relevant person poses a real risk of engaging in terrorism-related activities in a country; and
b: the requirements the order imposes for the main purposes stated in section 3(a) and (b)
i: to protect the public from terrorism; and
ii: to prevent engagement in terrorism-related activities in a country; and
c: any requirements the order imposes for 1 or both of the incidental purposes stated in section 3(c)
3: In determining any requirements imposed, the court must also—
a: consider how requirements, if imposed, will or may affect the person’s personal circumstances (for example, financial position, health, and privacy) , and their ability to comply with any conditions of any sentence they are serving, order they are subject to, or relevant conditions imposed upon them
b: consider whether requirements are justified limits on rights and freedoms in the New Zealand Bill of Rights Act 1990
c: comply with section 17 sections 18 19 20 Section 12(1)(a) amended 5 October 2021 section 48 Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 12(3)(a) amended 10 May 2023 section 29 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
13: Required content
1: A control order must state whether it is an interim control order or a final control order.
2: A final control order that replaces an interim control order must identify that interim control order.
3: A control order must also state the terms, and any conditions, of—
a: the requirements the order imposes for the main purposes stated in section 3(a) and (b)
b: any requirements the order imposes for 1 or both of the incidental purposes stated in section 3(c)
4: A control order must also state the duration of the order (subject to earlier variation, discharge, or expiry of the order or its requirements) ( see also section 25 Application
14: Application required
1: The court may make a control order only on an application for the purpose made by the Commissioner under this Act.
2: The application must—
a: state whether the order sought by the Commissioner is an interim control order or a final control order; and
b: if it is made, and to be heard and determined by the court, without notice to the relevant person, make clear how the application complies with section 15(2)(a) or (b) or 16A(2)
3: The application must also state whether any final control order sought replaces an interim control order.
4: The application must also state the terms, and any conditions, of the requirements of the order sought by the Commissioner, indicating whether they are—
a: the requirements the order would impose for the main purposes stated in section 3(a) and (b)
b: any requirements the order would impose for 1 or both of the incidental purposes stated in section 3(c) Section 14(2)(b) amended 10 May 2023 section 30 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
15: Application for interim control order
in respect of relevant returner
1: The Commissioner may make an application for an interim control order in respect of a relevant returner
a: the application is made—
i: before the relevant returner
ii: within 12 months after the relevant returner
b: the Commissioner believes on reasonable grounds that it is necessary and appropriate that the interim control order is made as soon as practicable in order to manage the real risks posed by the relevant returner
2: The application for the interim control order—
a: must be made, and must be heard and determined by the court, without notice to the relevant returner returner
i: service out of New Zealand of the documents to be served is reasonably practicable in the circumstances; and
ii: it is not necessary and appropriate to make the application, and for it to be heard and determined, without notice in order to manage the real risks posed by the relevant returner
b: may be made, and must be heard and determined by the court, without notice to the relevant returner
i: the application is made after the relevant returner
ii: the Commissioner believes on reasonable grounds that it is necessary and appropriate to make the application, and for it to be heard and determined, without notice in order to manage the real risks posed by the relevant returner
3: If the application for the interim control order is made on notice to the relevant returner
4: The application for the interim control order must be—
a: set down for hearing, and heard, as soon as practicable; and
b: determined as soon as practicable.
5: On or after making an interim control order in respect of a relevant returner section 16(1)(b) returner returner Section 15 heading amended 5 October 2021 section 49(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(1) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(1)(a)(i) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(1)(a)(ii) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(1)(b) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(2)(a) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(2)(a)(ii) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(2)(b) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(2)(b)(i) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(2)(b)(ii) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(3) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 15(5) amended 5 October 2021 section 49(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021
16: Application for final control order
in respect of relevant returner
1: The Commissioner may make an application for a final control order in respect of a relevant returner
a: no interim control order in respect of the relevant returner returner
b: an interim control order in respect of the relevant returner returner
i: within 3 months after the date on which the interim order was served on the relevant returner
ii: within any longer or shorter period the court directs (on its own initiative or on an application for the purpose made) on or after making the interim order and during that 3-month period; or
c: an interim control order in respect of the relevant returner returner
2: The application for the final control order must be—
a: made on notice to the relevant returner
b: set down for hearing, and heard, as soon as practicable; and
c: determined as soon as practicable.
3: Because the application for the final control order is made on notice to the relevant returner Section 16 heading amended 5 October 2021 section 50(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(1) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(1)(a) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(1)(b) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(1)(b)(i) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(1)(c) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(2)(a) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16(3) amended 5 October 2021 section 50(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021
16A: Application for interim control order in respect of relevant offender
1: The Commissioner may make an application for an interim control order in respect of a relevant offender only if—
a: the application is made—
i: after they become a relevant offender; and
ii: on or before their statutory release date, or their last day as an offender who is subject to release conditions, for the 1 or more sentences of imprisonment mentioned in section 6(5)(c) or, as the case requires, on or before their last day as an offender who is subject to the sentence of home detention (including while subject to post-detention conditions), or the community-based sentence, mentioned in section 6(6)(c)
b: the Commissioner believes on reasonable grounds that it is necessary and appropriate that the interim control order is made as soon as practicable in order to manage the real risks posed by the relevant offender of engagement in terrorism-related activities in a country.
2: The application for the interim control order may be made, and must be heard and determined by the court, without notice to the relevant offender if the Commissioner believes on reasonable grounds that it is necessary and appropriate to make the application, and for it to be heard and determined, without notice in order to manage the real risks posed by the relevant offender of engagement in terrorism-related activities in a country.
3: If the application for the interim control order is made on notice to the relevant offender, the documents to be served must exclude any information supporting the application that is not disclosable supporting information.
4: The application for the interim control order must be—
a: set down for hearing, and heard, as soon as practicable; and
b: determined as soon as practicable.
5: On or after making an interim control order in respect of a relevant offender, the court must consider whether to direct under section 16B(1)(b) Section 16A inserted 5 October 2021 section 51 Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16A(1)(a)(ii) amended 10 May 2023 section 31 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
16B: Application for final control order in respect of relevant offender
1: The Commissioner may make an application for a final control order in respect of a relevant offender only if—
a: no interim control order in respect of the relevant offender has been applied for, and the application for the final control order is made—
i: after they become a relevant offender; and
ii: on or before their statutory release date, or their last day as an offender who is subject to release conditions, for the 1 or more sentences of imprisonment mentioned in section 6(5)(c) or, as the case requires, on or before their last day as an offender who is subject to the sentence of home detention (including while subject to post-detention conditions), or the community-based sentence, mentioned in section 6(6)(c)
b: an interim control order in respect of the relevant offender was applied for and made, and the application for the final control order is made—
i: within 3 months after the date on which the interim order was served on the relevant offender; or
ii: within any longer or shorter period the court directs (on its own initiative or on an application for the purpose made) on or after making the interim order and during that 3-month period; or
c: an interim control order in respect of the relevant offender was applied for and declined, and the application for the final control order is made—
i: after they become a relevant offender; and
ii: on or before their statutory release date, or their last day as an offender who is subject to release conditions, for the 1 or more sentences of imprisonment mentioned in section 6(5)(c) or, as the case requires, on or before their last day as an offender who is subject to the sentence of home detention (including while subject to post-detention conditions), or the community-based sentence, mentioned in section 6(6)(c)
iii: because of a material change in circumstances since the interim control order was declined.
2: The application for the final control order must be—
a: made on notice to the relevant offender; and
b: set down for hearing, and heard, as soon as practicable; and
c: determined as soon as practicable.
3: Because the application for the final control order is made on notice to the relevant offender, the documents to be served must exclude any information supporting the application that is not disclosable supporting information. Section 16B inserted 5 October 2021 section 51 Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 16B(1)(a)(ii) amended 10 May 2023 section 32 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 16B(1)(c)(ii) amended 10 May 2023 section 32 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
16C: Report on whether EM requirement practicable and appropriate
1: If the requirements of a control order sought are or include an EM requirement ( see section 14(4)
2: The report must address whether an EM requirement is practicable and appropriate, including—
a: whether the monitoring equipment will function adequately; and
b: if the report relates only or in part to an EM requirement for a residential requirement, complying with section 16D
3: The report may also address any of the following matters:
a: the relevant person’s circumstances, including their employment, training, and childcare commitments; and
b: any other matter that is or may be relevant to whether (and if so, on what terms, and any conditions) a control order should impose an EM requirement. 2000 No 38 s 30F Section 16C inserted 10 May 2023 section 33 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
16D: EM address for EM requirement for residential requirement
1: In preparing a report under section 16C
a: whether the proposed EM address is appropriate for electronic monitoring of the relevant person, including whether there is any evidence of violence between—
i: the relevant person and any occupant of that address; and
ii: the relevant person and any person who may reasonably be expected to visit that address:
b: after following the steps set out in subsection (2), whether the relevant occupants consent to the relevant person remaining at the EM address with an EM requirement for a residential requirement.
2: Before ascertaining whether or not a relevant occupant consents, the Commissioner or the chief executive of the Department of Corrections must—
a: ensure that the occupant—
i: is aware of the nature of the circumstances that may lead to the relevant person becoming subject to an EM requirement for a residential requirement; and
ii: is aware of the nature of any past offending by the relevant person; and
iii: is aware of and understands the effects of an EM requirement for a residential requirement; and
b: inform the occupant that the information in paragraph (a) is given to the occupant to enable them to make an informed decision whether to consent to the relevant person remaining at the EM address with an EM requirement for a residential requirement; and
c: inform the occupant that the information in paragraph (a) must be used only for the purpose of making the decision referred to in paragraph (b); and
d: inform the occupant that consent to the relevant person remaining at the EM address with an EM requirement for a residential requirement can be withdrawn at any time and inform the occupant how they may withdraw their consent. 2000 No 38 s 30G Section 16D inserted 10 May 2023 section 33 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
16E: Use of information obtained for report
1: The uses to which information obtained for the purpose of preparing a report under section 16C
a: use in the determination of the application to which the report relates:
b: any use to which the relevant person has consented:
c: any other use that is or may be necessary for the purposes of this Act.
2: That information may not be used except in accordance with subsection (1). 2000 No 38 s 30H Section 16E inserted 10 May 2023 section 33 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Requirements that may be imposed
17: Requirements that may be imposed
A control order may impose on a relevant person only requirements that do all or any of the following: Prohibitions or restrictions
a: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from being in or at specified areas or places (for example, international ports, gun clubs, or specified residences) without Police escort:
b: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from leaving New Zealand or possessing passports, or other international travel documents of any kind, issued by any country:
c: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from communicating or associating with specified individuals, or a specified class of individuals (for example, individuals identified as being at real risk of radicalisation, or individuals identified as posing a real risk of further radicalising the relevant person):
d: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from disclosing or receiving specified information or otherwise dealing with specified classes of information (for example, means or methods of carrying out terrorism):
e: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from accessing or using, in any setting (for example, in a place of paid or voluntary work or of study), specified forms of telecommunication or other technology (whether the devices or facilities concerned are public or private) including the Internet (for example, prohibiting the relevant person from accessing the Internet except on devices known to the Police):
f: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from possessing or using specified articles or substances (for example, possessing terrorist propaganda material or possessing domestic chemicals above a certain quantity):
g: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from carrying out specified activities related to the real risk that the relevant person poses, including specified activities in respect of their work, occupation, or recreational activities:
h: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from holding accounts, possessing certain financial instruments, or using specified financial services:
i: prohibit or restrict the relevant person from transacting in property (for example, property over a certain value or transactions involving certain people): Other requirements
j: require the relevant person to reside at a specified address agreed between the relevant person and the Police (or as otherwise specified by the court) and to remain at that address (except as authorised by or under section 18 see also section 18
k: require the relevant person to report to specified constables at specified times and places (for example, meeting a constable twice a week):
l: require the relevant person to facilitate reasonable access by the Police or their agents to premises, equipment, or information if that access is necessary for monitoring compliance with the requirements stated in the order (for example, facilitating access to search the relevant person’s residence, electronic devices, or financial accounts):
m: require that the relevant person allow themselves to be photographed and impressions made of their fingerprints:
n: require that the relevant person submits to electronic monitoring of compliance with the requirements of the control order concerned and complies with their other obligations under section 17A see also section 19(1)
o: require that the relevant person undertake alcohol and drug assessments, and rehabilitative or reintegrative needs assessments:
p: require that the relevant person, if they have given and not withdrawn their informed consent to do so, engage with specified rehabilitative services (for example, alcohol and drug treatment services) ( see also section 20
q: require that the relevant person comply with any requirements that are not of a kind specified in paragraphs (a) to (p), that are specified in the order, and that are imposed under section 12(2)(b) and (c) and (3)
i: the main purposes stated in section 3(a) and (b)
ii: 1 or both of the incidental purposes stated in section 3(c) Section 17(j) amended 10 May 2023 section 34(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 17(n) replaced 10 May 2023 section 34(2) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 17(q) inserted 10 May 2023 section 34(3) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
17A: Relevant person’s obligations under EM requirement
Obligations under any EM requirement
1: A relevant person who is subject to a control order with an EM requirement must—
a: submit to electronic monitoring of compliance with the requirements of the control order concerned ( see section 17(n)
b: co-operate with, and comply with any lawful direction given by, Police; and
c: not tamper with or damage or do anything to interfere with the functioning of the electronic monitoring equipment. Obligations under EM requirement for residential requirement
2: A relevant person who is subject to a control order with an EM requirement for a residential requirement must (as well as complying with their obligations under subsection (1))—
a: not leave the EM address at any time except as authorised by or under section 18
b: remain in the area of the EM address that has been defined under clause 3 section 18
c: present themselves at the door of the EM address when required to do so by a constable. Breach
3: A breach by a relevant person of an obligation under subsection (1) or (2) is a breach of the EM requirement ( see section 32 Section 17A inserted 10 May 2023 section 35 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Limits on requirements
18: Limits on residential requirement
Daily limit on residential requirement
1: No residential requirement can require the relevant person to remain at a specified address for more than 12 hours in any 24-hour period. Authorised absences: general
2: A residential requirement does not prevent the relevant person from leaving a specified address—
a: as authorised under subsection (3) or (5); or
b: to seek urgent medical or dental treatment; or
c: to avoid or minimise a serious risk of death or injury to the relevant person or any other person; or
d: to surrender themselves to Police custody. Authorised absences: court-authorised absences
3: A court imposing a residential requirement can authorise the relevant person to be absent from a specified address.
4: In authorising a relevant person to be absent from the specified address, the court must specify—
a: the time or times during which the relevant person may be absent; and
b: the purpose or purposes for which the relevant person may be absent. Authorised absences: Police-authorised absences
5: In addition to absences authorised under subsection (3), if the relevant person is subject to a residential requirement (whether or not the relevant person is also subject to an EM requirement for a residential requirement), a constable who is of or above the level of position of inspector may authorise the relevant person to be absent from the specified address with or without a specified purpose for any or all days remaining to be served under the order. Further provision if EM requirement for residential requirement
6: If the relevant person is, or is to be, also subject to an EM requirement for a residential requirement,—
a: a specified address under section 17(j)
b: references in subsections (1) to (5) to a, or the, specified address include a reference to the area defined under clause 3 2000 No 38 s 30M Section 18 replaced 10 May 2023 section 36 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
19: Limits on EM requirement
Limit on any EM requirement
1: An EM requirement requires ( see section 17(n)
a: to submit to electronic monitoring of compliance with the requirements of the control order concerned; and
b: to comply with their other obligations under section 17A
2: An EM requirement may be imposed by a control order only—
a: under section 12(2)(b) or (c)
b: for the relevant purposes mentioned in section 12(2)(b) or (c)
3: The court must not impose an EM requirement if the court considers that a less restrictive requirement or combination of requirements would be sufficient to achieve—
a: the main purposes stated in section 3(a) and (b)
b: 1 or both of the incidental purposes stated in section 3(c)
4: The court must not impose an EM requirement unless the court is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the relevant person has been made aware of and understands their obligations under the EM requirement ( see section 17A
5: In considering whether (and if so, on what terms, and any conditions) to impose an EM requirement, the court—
a: must consider the report referred to in section 16C
b: may have regard to any other relevant information. Limits on EM requirement for residential requirement
6: In imposing an EM requirement for a residential requirement, a court must specify the EM address ( see also sections 17(j) 18(6)(a)
7: The court must not impose an EM requirement for a residential requirement unless the court is satisfied on reasonable grounds ( see also section 16D
a: the proposed EM address is appropriate for the purpose of a control order with an EM requirement for a residential requirement:
b: it is practicable for the relevant person to remain at the proposed EM address:
c: every relevant occupant of the proposed EM address has consented to the relevant person remaining at the proposed EM address with an EM requirement for a residential requirement:
d: the consent of the relevant occupant has been obtained after the steps set out in section 16D(2) 2000 No 38 ss 30C 30I 30J Section 19 replaced 10 May 2023 section 36 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
20: Limit on requiring relevant person to engage with specified rehabilitative services
1: No relevant person may be made, or may remain, subject to a requirement of the kind stated in section 17(p)
a: has been fully advised, by a person who is qualified to prescribe or provide the specified rehabilitative services, about their nature and their intended and likely effects and any known real risks of engaging with them; and
b: is competent to make an informed choice and give informed consent to engaging with them; and
c: gives, and has not withdrawn, informed consent to engaging with them.
2: Informed consent of that kind can be given, withheld, or withdrawn by words or conduct.
3: No particular conduct, or form of words, is required to give, withhold, or withdraw informed consent of that kind.
4: A relevant person who withholds, or withdraws, informed consent of that kind does not breach the relevant requirement for the purposes of section 32 2000 No 38 ss 30(4), (4A) 30AA 2002 No 10 s 15(4), (5) Management of EM requirement Heading inserted 10 May 2023 section 37 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
20A: Management of EM requirement
An EM requirement, if imposed, is managed under Schedule 3 Section 20A inserted 10 May 2023 section 37 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Service
21: Service of control order
1: The Commissioner must serve on a relevant person ( P
2: The control order must be served,—
a: if P is a relevant returner, and if practicable, on P’s arrival in New Zealand; or
b: if P is a relevant returner, and if service on P’s arrival in New Zealand is not practicable, as soon as is reasonably practicable after P’s arrival in New Zealand; but
c: in any event, not later than 12 months after the control order is made.
3: The control order and its requirements expire if the control order is not served within that 12-month period, but its expiry does not prevent another control order being applied for and made in respect of the same relevant person based on engagement in , or commission of,
a: the same terrorism-related activities in a foreign country or, as the case requires, the same terrorism-related New Zealand offence
b: later and different terrorism-related activities in a foreign country or, as the case requires, a later and different terrorism-related New Zealand offence Section 21(2)(a) replaced 5 October 2021 section 52(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 21(2)(b) replaced 5 October 2021 section 52(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 21(3) amended 10 May 2023 section 38 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 21(3)(a) amended 5 October 2021 section 52(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 21(3)(b) amended 5 October 2021 section 52(3) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021
22: Information to be served with interim control order made without notice
The Commissioner must prepare, and serve with an interim control order made without notice to, and served on, the relevant person, the following information:
a: the name of the relevant person who is subject to the order; and
b: that the relevant person is subject to an interim control order made by the High Court under this Act; and
c: a summary of the court’s reasons for making the order, and of the reasons why the court considered that the requirements of the order comply with section 12(2)(b) and (c)
d: a general explanation of the effect of the order and its requirements; and
e: that the order and its requirements take effect when they are served on the relevant person; and
f: the maximum duration of the order and its requirements ( see section 25(1)
g: any other information necessary to enable or help the relevant person to comply with all of the requirements of the order; and
h: a copy of the disclosable supporting information; and
i: how the relevant person can challenge the order, its requirements, or both—
i: by applying to the High Court under this Act to vary or discharge the order, its requirements, or both:
ii: by opposing an application made (no later than the date stated in or directed under section 16(1)(b) or 16B(1)(b)
iii: by appealing under the Senior Courts Act 2016
j: an explanation of the relevant person’s related rights to legal advice and representation; and
k: an explanation of the relevant person’s related rights to apply for legal aid; and
l: a general explanation of the effect of automatic suppression under this Act of the identity of the relevant person. Section 22(i)(ii) amended 10 May 2023 section 39 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
23: Entry to premises to serve control order
1: The court may issue a warrant authorising entry—
a: to any premises where the Police believe on reasonable grounds that a relevant person is present; and
b: in order to enable service on the relevant person of a control order.
2: The court may issue the warrant—
a: only on an application for the purpose made by the Commissioner; and
b: only if satisfied that a person has refused or refuses to allow the Police to enter those or any other premises in order to prevent or avoid service on the relevant person of a control order. 2015 No 112 s 21 Taking effect, duration, and renewal
24: Taking effect
1: A control order takes effect when it is served on the relevant person.
2: This section does not alter the operation of any requirements expressed to take effect only at a later time or times.
25: Duration
1: The duration of an interim control order made in respect of a relevant person is (subject to earlier variation, discharge, or expiry of the order or its requirements, and see also section 13(4)
a: a final control order that replaces the order is made by the court and served on the relevant person; or
b: no application for a final control order that replaces the order is made within the applicable period ( see section 16(1)(b) or 16B(1)(b)
c: an application of that kind made within that period is withdrawn, or is finally determined by the court refusing a final control order.
2: The duration of a final control order must be not longer than the court considers necessary having regard to the purposes stated in section 3(a) to (c) see also section 13(4)
3: But that duration must also be not longer than 2 years after the final control order is served on the relevant person in respect of whom the order is made.
4: Those 2 years include, for a final control order that replaces an interim control order, the period the interim control order has effect.
4A: Those 2 years exclude, for a final control order in respect of a relevant offender, any period on or before their statutory release date, or their last day as an offender who is subject to release conditions, for the 1 or more sentences of imprisonment mentioned in section 6(5)(c)
5: Those 2 years exclude, for a final control order, any period during which both the order and its requirements are wholly suspended under section 28
6: A final control order expires (subject to earlier variation, discharge, or expiry of the order or its requirements and to section 26(2)
7: However, the expiry of a final control order does not prevent another control order being applied for and made in respect of the same relevant person, but based on—
a: engagement in later and different terrorism-related activities in a foreign country; or
b: commission of a later and different terrorism-related New Zealand offence. Section 25(1)(b) amended 5 October 2021 section 53(1) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 25(4A) inserted 5 October 20212 section 53(2) Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021 Section 25(6) replaced 10 May 2023 section 40 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 25(7) inserted 10 May 2023 section 40 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
26: Renewal
1: The court may renew a final control order on an application for the purpose made by the Commissioner within its duration.
2: If an application for renewal of a final control order is made, the order has effect until the application is withdrawn or finally determined.
3: No final control order can be renewed more than twice.
4: No control order can be renewed if it has expired under—
a: section 28B
b: section 29
5: In deciding the application, the court must apply the provisions of this Act about making, and the requirements of, a final control order.
6: In particular, because the application is made on notice, the documents to be served must exclude any information supporting the application that is not disclosable supporting information.
7: However, sections 14(1) to (3) , 16(1) 16B(1)
8: A renewed final control order takes effect and expires, and is varied, suspended, or discharged, in the same way as one that has not been renewed. Section 26(4) replaced 10 May 2023 section 41(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 26(7) amended 10 May 2023 section 41(2) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Variation or discharge, and suspension or expiry, of control order and requirements
27: Variation or discharge
1: The court may vary or discharge a control order (whether an interim control order or a final control order) or its requirements or both—
a: on an application made for the purpose by the Commissioner or the relevant person; or
b: on its own initiative.
2: Before making an own-initiative decision about a variation or discharge, the court must—
a: notify the Commissioner and the relevant person of it; and
b: give them a reasonable opportunity to make submissions on it; and
c: consider any submissions they make on it.
3: In deciding whether to vary or discharge a control order or its requirements, the court must apply the provisions of this Act about making, and the requirements of, a final control order.
4: In particular, because the application or own-initiative decision is made on notice, the documents to be served must exclude any information supporting the application or own-initiative decision that is not disclosable supporting information.
5: However, sections 14(1) to (3) 16(1)
6: No variation of a control order can extend the duration of the control order under section 25
7: A varied control order takes effect and expires, and is renewed, varied, suspended, or discharged, in the same way as one that has not been varied.
28: Suspension
1: This section applies if, while a relevant person is subject to a control order, the relevant person is detained—
a: in a prison on remand , or in a prison on a recall
b: in a prison while serving a short-term sentence; or
c: in a hospital under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act 1992
d: in a facility under the Intellectual Disability (Compulsory Care and Rehabilitation) Act 2003
2: The control order and its requirements, to the extent (if any) that they cannot be complied with during that detention, are suspended until the relevant person is no longer detained in the prison, hospital, or facility. 2014 No 68 s 139 Section 28(1)(a) amended 10 May 2023 section 42 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
28A: Discharge if conviction or sentence overturned on criminal appeal
When control order discharged
1: A control order made in respect of a relevant offender is discharged if, on a criminal appeal by the offender or by a prosecutor, the conviction or sentence specified in section 6(5) or (6)
2: The control order is discharged regardless of whether the relevant person is a relevant person in reliance on section 6(7) When conviction overturned
3: The conviction is overturned
a: without an order for retrial; or
b: with a retrial being ordered but—
i: not being proceeded with; or
ii: not resulting in a conviction specified in section 6(5) or (6)
iii: being ended by a stay of proceedings. When sentence overturned
4: The sentence is overturned
a: it is set aside or remitted; and
b: another sentence (whether more or less severe) specified in section 6(5) or (6)
5: The sentence is also overturned
a: it, or any part of it, or any condition of it, is varied (by an appeal court); and
b: because of that variation, the sentence imposed on the offender for the relevant offence is not a sentence specified in section 6(5) or (6) Section 28A inserted 10 May 2023 section 43 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
28B: Expiry if relevant person recalled to prison and remains in prison because of that recall for at least 2 years
1: This section applies if, while a relevant person is subject to a control order, the relevant person is recalled to prison and remains in prison because of that recall (and not because of any later recall to prison of that relevant person) for at least 2 years.
2: The control order and its requirements expire, and the control order cannot be replaced by a final control order or renewed.
3: However, the expiry of the control order does not prevent another control order being applied for and made in respect of the same relevant person, but based on—
a: engagement in later and different terrorism-related activities in a foreign country; or
b: commission of a later and different terrorism-related New Zealand offence. Section 28B inserted 10 May 2023 section 43 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
29: Expiry if relevant person sentenced to long-term sentence
1: This section applies if, while a relevant person is subject to a control order, the relevant person is sentenced to a long-term sentence.
2: The control order and its requirements expire, and the control order cannot be replaced by a final control order or renewed.
3: However, the expiry of the control order does not prevent another control order being applied for and made in respect of the same relevant person, but based on—
a: engagement in later and different terrorism-related activities in a foreign country; or
b: commission of a later and different terrorism-related New Zealand offence. Section 29(2) replaced 10 May 2023 section 44 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 29(3) inserted 10 May 2023 section 44 Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Appeals
30: General effect of appeals
1: This section applies if, in a proceeding, a decision is given to make, renew, vary, or discharge a control order imposing a requirement.
2: This Act does not affect the application to the proceeding, or to the decision, of rules of court on the general effect of appeals.
3: An example is rules of court under which any appeal, application for leave to appeal, or giving of leave to appeal, does not operate as a stay of the proceeding, or a stay of execution of the decision, unless the court appealed from or the appeal court orders, or grants interim relief, to the contrary. SR 2004/199 r 30 SR 2005/69 r 12 Other matters
31: Standard of proof
1: This section applies to a question of fact arising in a proceeding—
a: that is a proceeding under this Act; and
b: that is not a proceeding for an offence against this Act.
2: The question must be decided on the balance of probabilities.
32: Offence to breach requirements
1: A person commits an offence if the person—
a: is a relevant person in respect of whom the court has made a control order; and
b: breaches, without reasonable excuse, a requirement of the control order.
2: A person who commits an offence under this section is liable on conviction to—
a: imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year; or
b: a fine not exceeding $2,000. 2002 No 10 s 71 2015 No 112 s 31
33: Automatic suppression of identity of relevant person
1: This section applies to a person if—
a: an application for, or for the renewal, variation, or discharge of, a control order in respect of the person has been made and has not been withdrawn or finally determined; or (as the case requires)
b: a control order has been made, renewed, varied, or discharged in respect of the person.
2: The purposes of this section are—
a: to protect the public from terrorism:
b: to prevent engagement in terrorism-related activities in a country:
c: to protect the person and to support the person’s reintegration into New Zealand or rehabilitation, or both.
3: No person may publish, in any report or account of the proceeding in which the court considers and determines the application or (as the case requires) makes, renews, varies, or discharges the control order, the person’s name, address, or occupation, unless the court, by order, permits the publication.
3A: The court may make an order that permits the publication—
a: on its own initiative; or
b: on an application for the purpose made by the Commissioner or by the person.
3B: In particular, the court may make an order that permits the publication—
a: on an application for the purpose made by the Commissioner, if—
i: the Commissioner has made, without notice to the person, an application for a control order in respect of the person; and
ii: the court has not yet heard or finally determined the application for the control order in respect of the person:
b: on an application for the purpose made by the Commissioner or by the person, if—
i: the Commissioner has made, on notice to the person, an application for a control order in respect of the person; and
ii: the court has not yet heard or finally determined the application for the control order in respect of the person.
4: The court may make an order that permits the publication—
a: only if satisfied that permitting the publication is consistent with the purposes of this section; and
b: if the order is made on an application by the person, only if satisfied that the person understands the nature and effect of their decision to apply for the order.
5: In particular, before making an order that permits the publication, the court must consider whether the order will or may lead to the publicising of views that do either or both of the following:
a: promote or encourage hostility towards any group of persons on 1 or more of the grounds specified in section 21
b: promote or encourage criminal acts or terrorism.
5A: For the purposes of subsection (5)(a), the ground in section 21(1)(i) age, which means any age commencing with the age of 16 years
6: An order under this section that permits the publication does not limit any power to clear the court, or to forbid publication, that a court has under any other law.
7: Nothing in this section applies to or prevents communication, by or on behalf of the Commissioner or another person performing official duties or functions, of information if the communication is necessary or desirable for the administration or enforcement of this Act.
8: In this section, name 2011 No 81 ss 194 195 201 Section 33(3A) inserted 10 May 2023 section 45(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 33(3B) inserted 10 May 2023 section 45(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 33(4) replaced 10 May 2023 section 45(1) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023 Section 33(5A) inserted 10 May 2023 section 45(2) Counter-Terrorism Acts (Designations and Control Orders) Amendment Act 2023
34: Offence to breach automatic suppression of identity
Knowing or reckless publication
1: A person commits an offence if the person knowingly or recklessly publishes any name, address, occupation, or other information in breach of section 33
2: A person who commits an offence against subsection (1)
a: in the case of an individual, to a term of imprisonment not exceeding 6 months:
b: in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $100,000. Other publication
3: A person commits an offence if the person publishes any name, address, occupation, or other information in breach of section 33
4: In a prosecution for an offence against subsection (3)
5: Subsection (3)
6: A person who commits an offence against subsection (3)
a: in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $25,000:
b: in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $50,000. 2011 No 81 s 211
35: Returning Offenders (Management and Information) Act 2015
This Act does not limit or affect the application or operation of the Returning Offenders (Management and Information) Act 2015
36: Additional requirements for decisions that supporting information is not disclosable
Section 36 repealed 28 November 2023 section 104 Security Information in Proceedings (Repeals and Amendments) Act 2022
37: Amendment to Legal Services Act 2011
1: This section amends the Legal Services Act 2011
2: In section 4(1) specified application
cb: by a person who is a respondent to an application under the Terrorism Suppression (Control Orders) Act 2019 2019-12-20 Legal Services Act 2011
38: Review of Act
1: The Minister must, as soon as practicable after the second anniversary of the day on which the Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021
a: commence a review of the need for, and operation and effectiveness of, this Act; and
b: prepare a report on that review.
2: The Minister must ensure that the people and organisations that the Minister thinks appropriate are consulted during the preparation of the report about the matters to be considered in the report.
3: As soon as practicable after the report has been completed, the Minister must present a copy of the report to the House of Representatives. 2017 No 29 s 86 2019 No 58 s 148 Section 38(1) amended 5 October 2021 section 55 Counter-Terrorism Legislation Act 2021


1: Title
This Act is the Maritime Transport (Offshore Installations) Amendment Act 2019.
2: Commencement
This Act comes into force on 1 January 2020.
3: Principal Act
This Act amends the Maritime Transport Act 1994 principal Act 2020-01-01 Maritime Transport Act 1994
1: Amendments to Part 26A of principal Act
4: Section 385A amended (Interpretation)
In section 385A insurance
5: Section 385J replaced (Rights of third parties against insurers of regulated offshore installations)
Replace section 385J
385J: Rights of third-party claimants against insurers of regulated offshore installations
1: This section applies if the owner of a regulated offshore installation is alleged to have incurred liability to a person (a claimant
a: section 385B
b: section 385C
c: section 385D
2: The claimant may recover the insured amount of the liability from any person (in this section, the insurer section 385H
3: The insured amount of the liability is the amount of indemnity (if any) payable under the terms of the contract of insurance or other financial security in respect of the owner’s liability to the claimant.
4: Proceedings may only be brought by a claimant against an insurer under this section with the leave of the court.
5: In proceedings brought by a claimant against an insurer under this section,—
a: the insurer stands in the place of the owner as if the proceedings were proceedings to recover damages, compensation, or costs from the owner; and
b: the parties have the same rights and liabilities, and the court has the same powers, as if the proceedings were proceedings brought against the insured person; and
c: the insurer is entitled to rely on any defence or any other matter in answer to the claim or in reduction of its liability to the claimant—
i: that the insurer would have been entitled to rely on in a claim made by the owner under the terms of the contract of insurance or other financial security; or
ii: that the owner would have been entitled to rely on in proceedings brought by the claimant against the owner in respect of the liability.
6: However, despite subsections (3) and (5)(c)(i), the insurer is not entitled to rely on any defence arising from an act or omission by the owner that occurred after the event that gave rise to the liability (for example, a defence based on a failure by the owner to comply with a condition that the owner provide information or assistance to the insurer).
7: Nothing in this section—
a: entitles a claimant to recover any amount from a re-insurer under a contract or arrangement for re-insurance:
b: prejudices any claim, or the enforcement of any claim, by any person against the owner of a regulated offshore installation in respect of pollution damage.
8: Any payment made by the insurer to the claimant under this section in respect of the liability discharges, to the extent of the payment, the liability of the insurer to make a payment to the owner under the terms of the contract of insurance or other financial security in respect of the liability.
9: An insurer’s liability to a claimant under this section is not reduced, discharged, or otherwise affected by—
a: any compromise or settlement between the insurer and the owner in respect of the liability; or
b: any payment by the insurer to the owner in respect of the liability unless and to the extent that the amount of the payment is or has been paid by the owner to the claimant in respect of the liability. Civil Liability (Third Party Claims Against Insurers) Act 2017 (NSW) ss 4, 7, 9–11
2: Other amendments to principal Act
6: Section 387 amended (Marine protection rules relating to marine protection documents)
1: In section 387(4) relevant insurance policy, bond, or other form of financial security relevant insurance or other financial security
2: After section 387(4)
4A: Without limiting subsection (4), the marine protection rules may—
a: provide for the types of liability and the amount for which insurance or other financial security must be held for the purpose of section 385H
b: set requirements and criteria for regulated offshore installations that must be satisfied in respect of insurance or other financial security for the costs of complying with a marine oil spill contingency plan in accordance with section 313
7: Schedule 1AA amended
In Schedule 1AA, after Part 1
2: Maritime Transport (Offshore Installations) Amendment Act 2019
4: Old section 385J applies to existing proceedings
Section 385J Maritime Transport (Offshore Installations) Amendment Act 2019
5: Rules may provide for early expiry of certificates of insurance
1: For the purpose of implementing the Maritime Transport (Offshore Installations) Amendment Act 2019 amendment Act section 387(4) or (4A)(a) section 385H
2: Nothing in subclause (1) limits the ability of rules made under this Act to provide for transitional matters.